W
windlessuser
Guest
Hi, I am just coming from a Bible study with a non Denominational group. One of the Bible verses we spoke about was:
Ezekiel 18:20
“The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him.”
(New International Version (©1984))
The context of Ezekiel 18 was speaking about individual responsibility. thus, the group leaders argument was that sin cannot be inherited. Contrary to this, if Sin could be inherited, then righteousness could also be inherited therefore baptism of infants would be unnecessary. Thus by extension Mary and Jesus would be born of sin.
I know the churches teaching is that original sin is not something we are born with but Something we are born without (The grace of God that Adam originally had). If his stance is true however, Why is original Sin relevant?
Much help needed.
Ezekiel 18:20
“The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him.”
(New International Version (©1984))
The context of Ezekiel 18 was speaking about individual responsibility. thus, the group leaders argument was that sin cannot be inherited. Contrary to this, if Sin could be inherited, then righteousness could also be inherited therefore baptism of infants would be unnecessary. Thus by extension Mary and Jesus would be born of sin.
I know the churches teaching is that original sin is not something we are born with but Something we are born without (The grace of God that Adam originally had). If his stance is true however, Why is original Sin relevant?
Much help needed.