Original Sin: Mortal or Venial

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ActuallyAquinas

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I was wondering if there is any distinctions of the Fall being Mortal or Venial Sin.
 
I would assume that original sin would be mortal as those without Baptism go to Hell. However, I would also assume that original sin would be in a category of its own as it is different from mortal and venial sin and is acquired at birth. Hope this helps.
 
I think it’s a distinct type of sin. It’s not either.
 
There are two main divisions of sin - original and actual. Within the division of actual sin are two types - mortal and venial. The mortal/venial distinction does not apply to original sin.
 
I agree that it cannot fit into either category.

Venial sins do not cause us to loose our salvation. But original sin does, so original sin can’t be venial.

For a sin to be considered “mortal” (according to Catholic teaching) it must fully meet three criteria:
  • Be of a serious nature (violation of one of the Ten Commandments).
  • The person must be fully aware of the sinful nature of the action at the time it happened.
  • The person must have fully consented to the action (ie, was not compelled or coerced).
Original sin clearly cannot meet all three of these criteria. So it can’t be a mortal sin.

Not venial sin, not mortal sin - it is original sin.
 
DavidFilmer said:
I agree that it cannot fit into either category.
  • Be of a serious nature (violation of one of the Ten Commandments).
  • The person must be fully aware of the sinful nature of the action at the time it happened.
  • The person must have fully consented to the action (ie, was not compelled or coerced).
Original sin clearly cannot meet all three of these criteria. So it can’t be a mortal sin.

Not venial sin, not mortal sin - it is original sin.
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Which of the three does it not meet?
 
ActuallyAquinas said:
Which of the three does it not meet?
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The first. Grave matter is the act or ommission. Since original sin is not an act or ommission, it cannot meet the first.

But it’s irrelevant anyway. Mortal and venial are two types of actual sin.

It’s like asking “is this orange a McIntosh or a Granny Smith?”
 
Corki said:
The first. Grave matter is the act or ommission. Since original sin is not an act or ommission, it cannot meet the first.

But it’s irrelevant anyway. Mortal and venial are two types of actual sin.

It’s like asking “is this orange a McIntosh or a Granny Smith?”
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How was the original sin not an act or omission? Adam and Eve ate the apple, that seems pretty act-like to me.
 
Which question are you asking?

This one?
ActuallyAquinas said:
I was wondering if there is any distinctions of the Fall being Mortal or Venial Sin.
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or the thread title one?
Original Sin: Mortal or Venial
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I was answering the thread title. The sin of Adam and Eve as committed in the Garden was mortal. Grave matter, knowledge, consent.
 
With respect to Adam and Even who personally committed original sin, it was actual sin which was mortal.

With respect to the descendants of Adam and Eve, who did not personally commit the sin, but suffer from the effects of it, the sin is called original sin, not actual sin. It is not personal mortal sin on our part, but it prevents us from being conceived in the state of grace. That is cured by Baptism.
 
Corki said:
It was an act for Adam and Eve. It is not for us who are born with Original Sin.
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I can’t say for sure, but I am pretty inclined to think the OP meant for Adam and Eve. He actually didn’t use the term original sin at all, he asked if the Fall was a mortal or venial sin.
 
Corki said:
Which question are you asking?

This one?

or the thread title one?

I was answering the thread title. The sin of Adam and Eve as committed in the Garden was mortal. Grave matter, knowledge, consent.
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I will rephrase: Was the Original Sin, for Adam and Eve, Mortal?

And, thank you for your clear answer.

I am, Sir,
Your obedient Servant,

Chris IV
 
Moral, definitely. This sin of mankind needed for the Son of God to suffer. I don’t think that would have been the case if it were a venial sin.
 
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