Just a quick note…original sin is not an actual sin. We do not inherit sin but rather a sinful nature.
Well said!
Perhaps I worded my question poorly. Let me ask another way.
For the same reason that a baptized person can get cancer: we still suffer from the effects of Original Sin, though no longer from the sin itself. IOW, we have been brought into relationship with God through the Life, Death and Resurrection of Christ, being baptized into Him, but we remain subject to concupiscience and the other ills that befell Man at the Fall.
Our fallen nature is a result of an act of our First Parents (more precisely, by Adam); our salvation, likewise, was won by the acts of Our Savior, the New Adam; we in our turn, being transformed into His image, are also called upon to act, i.e., to respond to God’s grace that raises us up to participate in the Divine Nature. God wants our response freely; thus, we do not inherit salvation except by, as St. Paul says, “working out our salvation in fear and trembling.” If we were to inherit salvation (which God COULD have done), our love wouldn’t be freely offered, but a natural consequence of being born.
It is the common teaching (sententia communis) of the Church that in Mary concupiscence was so bound as not to have her tend in any way toward disordered desires. The teaching of the Church regarding Christ and concupiscense is of a higher theological degree (sententia fide proxima); it is generally seen by theologians as a truth of Revelation, but hasn’t yet been fully promulgated by the Church - it would be should a need to clarify it for the Faithful be recognized. (I’ve seen a need at times on this forum.
) The teaching is that in Christ concupiscence was completely removed, thus the powers of His senses were completely subject to the direction of reason, and thus He could not sin. It is de fide, however, that Christ was free from all sin, both original and personal. (cf. Ott’s Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma).I am wondering why you believe outside of what the scriptures teach… even though Mary had sexual relations with her husband. and Jesus who was born of the virgin at that time by the power of the Holy Spirit, why would you consider that Mary did not have sin? Mary did have original sin. As taught by the apostle Paul in the letter to the Romans, “all have fallen short of the glory of God.” Did Jesus have any sexual relations with any human here on earth? I find no text for an affirmative answer on that. I would think that if Mary was without sin, putting her in the same state of Holiness as God incarnate, is nothing more than blasphemy. And because the Roman Catholic church teaches that Mary was with out sin, how does the fact that St. Paul writes that when a person has sexual relations outside of marriage, with a sinner, the very sin is against their own body. She would stand condemned to eternity separated from the presense of God. For Joseph did not “know”(as you know this is the term used for ‘having had sex’) respectivelly speaking, with his wife until after the birth of Jesus. Now Joseph needed a saviour as much as Mary. But if Mary was ‘holy’ and without sin, why would a Jewish girl who knew the laws of God, and the result if the law was broken, would unite herself with a man who was a sinner, thus defiling herself? So as it is, Mary would stand condemned if she had not put her faith in the only sinless one…Jesus the Messiah.
Hi
Where is that in scripture or anywhere in sacred tradition?
“All” is pretty inclusive. If you want to use this quote literally! That would include Jesus who is fully man [and fully God]
There is no text for Mary either.
Then you limit God. That is blasphemous.
“Until” doesn’t mean after the fact that he did it. It means that up to that point he didn’t You have to learn English.
Why would God send his Son to redeem all these sinners?
huh?