yet cannot be truly Eastern in the truest sense of the term because he is bound by Latin doctrines (Immaculate Conception and Papal Infallibility),
The faith may be more accurately discerned by one geographic/ethnic group than another, but that does not mean that the faith is thus limited in its nature to that group. The Apostolic faith is universal in nature, binding and all and provided for the edification of all. Thus, even if the Apostolic faith is more clearly by one group more than another, if an outsider leaves the errant traditions of their people and comes to the Apostolic faith found amongst another people, they have actually thus succeeded in being more faithful to who they are than before. In my book, a Western rite Eastern Orthodox Christian, even though bound to Byzantine doctrines and some Byzantine liturgical regulations, is more legitimately Western than those who hold to the standard errant beliefs in their former Western churches. So, I think it would be erroneous to say that because Eastern Catholics are bound to doctrines discerned in the Latin church that they are inherently less Eastern. If the faith of the RCC is the Apostolic faith, then their acceptance of it thus enlivens and legitimatizes their Eastern nature.
(note that I am saying this all hypothetically because I in fact do not believe that the faith of the RCC is the Apostolic faith)
but it troubles me that Eastern Catholics cannot express their traditional beliefs because of this “binding” on all Catholics.
Does it bother you when the same principle is applied to Western rite Eastern Orthodox Christians?
I think if these people wish to express the beliefs which are traditional to them then they should not be in the RCC in the first place. For instance, if you want to believe that the Holy Spirit eternally originates from the Father alone, then I think it would be wrong for one to be Roman Catholic. I do not think they should even be allowed to express a divergent opinion from what was defined at Florence, because that would be to break the dogmatic unity and thus to deny the Vincentian canon. If people do not want to hold the Latin dogmas then they should not seek to be Roman Catholic, but rather Eastern Orthodox or whatever church best fits the dogmas they hold to.
*]Why are the Orthodox set up in Nationalistic Churches? What happened to the ancient original model of only 4 Patriarchates in the Communion?
Where are you coming up with the number 4? Before the Council of Chalcedon there were 3 Patriarchates: Rome, Alexandria, and Antioch; though some would rarely claim that Ephesus was also originally a patriarchal church. After the Council of Chalcedon, Constantinople and Jerusalem were added, leaving 5. The 4 amongst Chalcedonians only showed up after Rome was sundered from the 4 Greek Patriarchates in the 11th century.
But, your idea of the church only being composed of 5 autocephalous churches in the early Church is very off anyway. For instance, the Church of Cyprus was granted autocephaly in the 5th century. The Church of Georgia was also granted autocephaly in the 5th century. It was later granted Patriarchal status in the 11th century. So there’s two national churches in the ancient church aside from the 5 Patriarchs already. The Church of Bulgaria was granted autocephaly and Patriarchal status in the 9th century, before the central events of the schism. In 410 the Sassanid church (now known as “the Assyrian Church of the East”) was granted autonomy from the Patriarchate of Antioch. As for the Orientals, in 373 the Armenian church stopped sending its bishops of Etchmiadzin to Caesarea Cappadocia for consecration. In 721 it was reunited to the Syriac Orthodox Patriarchate of Antioch, an agreement which involved the autocephaly the Armenian church.
So, as I hope I have shown you, the form of having national churches is very much part of the Tradition of the Church of the first 1,000 years, though it certainly has become even more so in the past few hundred years.
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*]How can the Orthodox claim to have unbroken succession in regards to the Patriarchates of Antioch and Alexandria? The original holders to them are the Syriac and Coptic Orthodox Churches, respectively.
Well, that is up for debate. As much as I would like to say that the Coptic Patriarch is the true Patriarch of Alexandria and the Syriac Patriarch is the true Patriarch of Antioch, I cannot say this without backing it up; this is not an undisputed reality. Of course, it partially relies on whether the EO or the OO preserved the Apostolic faith. Whoever did, if it was one and not the other, they had exclusive rights to succession to the Apostolic sees. However, there are other matters to consider. Which of these were elected by the common people of Egypt and Syria? Typically the Non-Chalcedonian bishops were supported by the people and elected by them. Another matter is whether the Byzantine Emperor had a right to depose bishops. If so, it is likely the Chalcedonians actually possess the See of Antioch. The last point of division between the EO and OO in Antioch was during the time of Severus of Antioch, and he was deposed the Emperor. I personally do not think the Emperor had any such right to do such a thing. But if you do, then one could claim that the Chalcedonian Patriarch of Antioch is the legitimate successor. It’s a much more complicated matter than you make it sound.