C
czarlazar
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What does that mean?Do the Orthodox believe in the Real Presence?
What does that mean?Do the Orthodox believe in the Real Presence?
You are talking about a lot of controversial historiography at the moment. For the past 15 years, the history on the Gregorian Reform Movement has drastically been rewritten. And it is largely tied up with the big Feudal Revolution debate. So let’s take Germany for example. Having papally appointed bishops was unheard of practically until the 11th century. Now does this mean the old system was corrupt? No, not really. Up until this time, bishops would generally lease out tithing rights and church lands to local lay-lords in order to forge friendly relations with the locals. The church owned so much land, that they could not manage it themselves. So it made sense to lease it out. It was a way of forming relations, but not necessarily an act of corruption. Around the 10th and 11th century, the concepts of political power began to change. Originally, power was almost always vested in offices and land rights. However, by this time, concepts of power changed to direct control of lands. So when bishops continued to rent out lands and their leasees then rented out those same lands, the church property and rights became distantly alienated from the original owner. Bishops for centuries really had no problem with this, because it did not decrease their power, because the concept of power was different back then. When the concept changed, these bishops demanded to keep these lands under their direct authority. Local lords had no problem with renegotiating contracts with the bishops, HOWEVER, they were upset that bishops essentially wanted to terminate the economic relations entirely. The end result was a culture war between two concepts of power.You are indeed right that secular rulers have often interfered in ecclesiastical settings in the Western Church as well. One only has to consider the Avignon Papacy and the excessive influence of Philip the Fair on the pope. Certainly, I wasn’t trying to intimate that this problem hasn’t occurred in Catholicism. However it would be hard to argue that the victory of the Gregorian Reform in the Investiture Contest did not result in a significant change in church-state relations that is unparalleled in the Orthodox world.
Caeseropapism is not part of Orthodox theology, indeed ‘phyletism’ is condemned as a heresy. Since it is not part of Orthodox dogma, this is not in any way a critique of Orthodoxy itself. It is rather a reflection that the ecclesiastical structure of Orthodoxy lends itself more easily to a caeseropapist mould than the state-like centralized bureaucracy of the Catholic Church under a Holy See that is in theory an independent diplomatic actor headed by a bishop who claims the plenitudo potestatis (fullness of power). While the papacy has come under secular influence, it has been almost impossible to keep it as such for long in view of this dogmatic precept in Catholic theology. As a result church-state relations have been far more fraught in the West since the Bishop of Rome has been in a far stronger position to contest imperial or national claims to spiritual as well as temporal authority. What Orthodox Patriarch has ever attained the zenith of power reached by the papacy in the High Middle Ages?
This is only possible because, unlike the Latin Church, these monks answer to no one.I am very glad to hear this about Patriarch Kirill vis-à-vis the monks of Mt. Athos, whom I have always respected, especially elder Paisios who I hear was canonized this year![]()
Yes, most definitely.Do the Orthodox believe in the Real Presence?
Can you explain this, I am not aware of what the reference is tooYes, most definitely.
Spain? North Africa? Syria?But I find it interesting that the Muslims were never able to conquer lands in union with the See of Peter.
Croatia, Bosnia, Albania…Spain? North Africa? Syria?
Baghdad, Budapest, Jerusalem…Croatia, Bosnia, Albania…
Real Presence, that Christ is truly present in flesh and blood in the Eucharist, in bread and wine?Can you explain this, I am not aware of what the reference is too
It was an answer to a previous post.Real Presence, that Christ is truly present in flesh and blood in the Eucharist, in bread and wine?
Not sure how this is relevant to this conversation.
I suppose there are differences in doctrines and history and belief that might cause struggle in deciding which one to convert to.I thought this thread was about converts personal experience and whether they struggled?
Why are people arguing points of doctrine, history and faith?
I see your post where you mention the Real Presence in response to another, but I’m still not seeing why the Real Presence is relevant to the person you responded to? Unless you’re trying to make a point and it just went over my head.It was an answer to a previous post.
I think it was just a question that he had (not trying to speak for him); but that is how I understood it, it was a just a question.I see your post where you mention the Real Presence in response to another, but I’m still not seeing why the Real Presence is relevant to the person you responded to? Unless you’re trying to make a point and it just went over my head.
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How came you by this information?Of course what never gets mentioned is the fact that all the Eastern rites combined make up barely half of 1% of the Catholic Church. Over 99% of the Church is Latin rite.
well the 2010 data shows 17,775,421 members and what is the Latin church total ? I guess that would give you the percentages. 1.2 billion total catholics…so its pretty small.How came you by this information?
Yes it was just a question. Thank you czarlazar. (By the way, I am a she!)I think it was just a question that he had (not trying to speak for him); but that is how I understood it, it was a just a question.
Oh, my apologies, ma’amYes it was just a question. Thank you czarlazar. (By the way, I am a she!)
That’s ok.Oh, my apologies, ma’am![]()