Orthodox and Marian Beliefs

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I’m talking HISTORY not devotion. Thats another thread. What option do you have? Mary the Mother of God?

Your own understanding is more like what… John the Theologian above? :rolleyes: What part “exactly” are you more in line with? I’m confused with that claim. You mean you’d rather ignore history, is that sort of like like denial? 🤷 Oh the history is ALL there. Where is world do suppose St Anne and those stories even came from? EAST!!!
I have absolutely no idea what you are talking about. I am fully in line with Church teaching. I have taken great pains to track down information on Church teachings on Mary and what is and is not infallibly defined or authoritatively required to be a good Catholic.
Wow I’m astounded by the inability to hit “Google Search” here.
I’m astounded by your attitude and lack of charity.
I think I will pass on taking the opinion of a Fordham Univeristy freshman theology major.
Mediatrix of Grace isn’t Dogma posts 16+19 I believe. But you begin to understand it when you understand Mary as the Gate. Queen of Heaven. When Michael explains “what” all that entails perhaps we shall begin to see how Grace works. 🤷 What does the the Queen of Heaven do Michael? 🤷 Anyone from the EAST know?
Listen I went to Catholic School as a child, no big mystery that “most” Catholics are not running around with a Rosary waiting on the next apparition, I assuire you of this. Not a mystery. History is still History though. 👍 Earliest known feast days…East.
Again, I have no idea what you are talking about. Are you suggesting that somehow Eastern Catholics are approaching Mary in the wrong way?

Again, as I noted above, the terms Co-Redemtrix, Mediatrix, and Advocate have not been defined by the Church. In fact, and attempt to do just that failed.campus.udayton.edu/mary//resources/internationalmarianacademy.htm

You may or may not be comfortable using terms in your theological discussions which no one in authority can even define, but I am not.
 
jwinch2 spare me the drama queen act. Heres your statement…

“My own understanding and approach to Mary is probably more in line with Eastern Tradition than some of the more extreme positions taken in the Latin Church. Thankfully, I have that option”

Thats where the confrontation came in as to “what” you were talking about. 🤷

There is No Difference the teachings are from the east to the west. Thats the point. Is confrontation difficult for you?

The Freshman you refuse to read is quoting “History”. And accurate History. 1st century foward and from the East. They are direct quotes, of early church fathers, not his theological thinking. Thus its not his “opinion” but historic research.

Apparently you don’t read links anyway or you wouldn’t have made the comment that no-one can explain Mediatrix. There’s 3-links on it, EWTN isn’t good enough for you? But the link you posted we should raise up a flagpole? :rolleyes:

I’m not “suggesting” anything. the facts could be read. Its not required belief. The term was defined in V-II and then used in a lower status in relation to the church. The theology has been around “forever” if fact since all Grace passed through Mary.

As I have stated I really don’t find it astounding everyone isn’t running around in salutation of Mary. I find it absolutely ridiculous with the constant drival I hear from the East in relation to all of this though.
 
jwinch2 spare me the drama queen act. Heres your statement…
Then spare the attitude and the condescension.
.
“My own understanding and approach to Mary is probably more in line with Eastern Tradition than some of the more extreme positions taken in the Latin Church. Thankfully, I have that option”
Thats where the confrontation came in as to “what” you were talking about. 🤷
There is No Difference the teachings are from the east to the west. Thats the point. Is confrontation difficult for you?
I disagree, and apparently so do many Eastern Catholics and Orthodox. Regardless, I wasn’t responding to you when I made that statement in the first place.
The Freshman you refuse to read is quoting “History”. And accurate History. 1st century foward and from the East. They are direct quotes, of early church fathers, not his theological thinking. Thus its not his “opinion” but historic research.
A college freshmen with no training in historical or theological research is not any kind of source for interpretation of the Church Fathers that I am interested reading.
Apparently you don’t read links anyway or you wouldn’t have made the comment that no-one can explain Mediatrix. There’s 3-links on it, EWTN isn’t good enough for you? But the link you posted we should raise up a flagpole? :rolleyes:
I read the links. I did not claim that no-one could explain it. I said that the Church has not chosen to define the term in any sort of official capacity.
I’m not “suggesting” anything. the facts could be read. Its not required belief. The term was defined in V-II and then used in a lower status in relation to the church. The theology has been around “forever” if fact since all Grace passed through Mary.
The question in relation to the Mediatrix of All Graces title is whether graces continue to pass through her to this day. And as you said, it is not required belief.
As I have stated I really don’t find it astounding everyone isn’t running around in salutation of Mary. I find it absolutely ridiculous with the constant drival I hear from the East in relation to all of this though.
Very nice.
 
If we do not believe the same things, how do we share the same faith?
Read this post by Marduk, in which he uses the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary as an example of how western and, in this case, eastern beliefs differ while still constituting the one true Christian faith.
Or at least we are not supposed to be, because a great many things can seem the same if we zoom out far enough, yet are not the same.
Actually, it’s when zooming far in that the truth of the assertion that we share the same Faith becomes most apparent.
 
Indeed, people might have the same faith despite having different beliefs (e.g., Ethiopians and the other OO certainly have different ideas of what is included in the canon), but nothing that rises to the level of dogma, as the Roman Church is known to declare as dogma what others leave to private opinion (the assumption) or even outright reject (papal infallibility, purgatory, etc). It is not compatible that one church should believe its head bishop to be infallible and have universal jurisdiction and the other not and that the two still have the same faith, nor that one may teach purgatory as dogma and the other condemn it, etc. We have different faiths.
I’ve laid a reasonable approach about how one might systematically approach the problem - starting with general criteria and norms, and moving to analysis. If on the other hand you begin with specifics and make claims about their importance or lack of importance, then we will go to a thousand posts and make no headway at all.

However, it is worth responding to some points that you make.

I don’t know enough about OO’s to comment, but the assumption is beyond doubt the teaching of the EO churches. Period. There are numerous such teachings that are crystal clear and have never been dogmatized simply because they have never been seriously contested. Accordingly the criterion of dogmatization is not particularly useful in determining differences in faith.

The issue of purgatory is even more revealing. What is taught in the CC - clear from the catechism is completely compatible with EO teaching on life after death. Issues about the nature of purgatorial “fire” or the “place” of purification were already settled at Florence in a manner that answered EO criticisms. The feeling that there is an incompatibility is not the same as there actually being an incompatibility. This poin thas important implications on infallibility and primacy versus supremacy issue. Raising the flag doesn’t cut it. Some heavy lifting is required; fortunately some people are actually doing it.
 
Read this post by Marduk (…)
Yeah, I don’t think it’s worth anyone’s time to bring Mardukm’s viewpoint into the discussion. I say this not out of disrespect for the guy, but because I wasn’t born yesterday and I don’t really want to have to read or participate in the 30 pages of nonsense that will follow. I learned my lesson last time, thank you.
Actually, it’s when zooming far in that the truth of the assertion that we share the same Faith becomes most apparent.
No. That is false no matter the magnification. My point is that you can neither smooth over the differences by glossing over them nor recognizing them as real but as two expressions of the same faith when they are not.
 
Would you say there is not enough devotion in Eastern theology?
I would say there is a proper amount of it, and formed the right way. But you can say I am biased. But to us Mary as the Theotokos says it all. No need to keep defining Marian dogmas of so many other titles. Ultimately all these other titles bestowed by the Roman Church on Mary can be traced back to the fact that she is the Theotokos. But having too many titles as I see it only creates confusion instead of a better understanding.

And to those who says that the East lacks the devotion to Mary the way the West has, let me put it this way. Compare how many times she is mentioned in the Roman Mass compared to the Divine Liturgy. I mean, we have a whole section dedicated to her. I don’t see that as lacking devotion.
 
But having too many titles as I see it only creates confusion instead of a better understanding.
Apparently, “Theotokos” does not say it all.
Typically during the divine liturgy:
… Presvjatuju, prečistuju, preblahoslovennuju, slavnuju vladyčicu našu bohorodicu i prisnoďivu Mariju…

Even more: Akathist to the Theotokos -
stsymeon.com/akathist.html
 
Apparently, “Theotokos” does not say it all.
Typically during the divine liturgy:
… Presvjatuju, prečistuju, preblahoslovennuju, slavnuju vladyčicu našu bohorodicu i prisnoďivu Mariju…

Even more: Akathist to the Theotokos -
stsymeon.com/akathist.html
Akathists are usually written that way. You can look up an Akathist to any saint and find the same thing. But when it comes down to it, there is no other title thrown around attached to Mary. Theotokos is akin to Christ. We also call Jesus many other things in praises, but Christ says it all.
 
Akathists are usually written that way. You can look up an Akathist to any saint and find the same thing. But when it comes down to it, there is no other title thrown around attached to Mary. Theotokos is akin to Christ. We also call Jesus many other things in praises, but Christ says it all.
I don’t see the point of the argument. The truth is clear enough: we have and use all sorts of titles.
 
I disagree, and apparently so do many Eastern Catholics and Orthodox. Regardless,.
With History 🙂 Then we disagree. The rest of the statement doesn’t strenghten your case as thats a two-way street. 🤷
I wasn’t responding to you when I made that statement in the first place. .
I was responding to you. Sorry you don’t seem to think that should occur. 😉
A college freshmen with no training in historical or theological research is not any kind of source for interpretation of the Church Fathers that I am interested reading…
Early Chuch Fathers “actual” writtings, Acts of Andrew, Epistles of Mark and James, all real, as with any historic research if you do not trust it than follow up on his research. Its all there. The point he was a freshman is irrelavant in Historic value. The works he quotes actually exist. And they are “all” referenced
the Church has not chosen to define the term in any sort of official capacity.
They did define this in V-II and assigned the role to the Church. Thats the “official” capacity. Which if you read the footnotes from the CCC below they then refer to V-II , which this link is slightly off I do believe. LG 62 would be correct. Had they chose not to define this then they wouldn’t appear in the CCC and LG.

google.com/url?q=http://www.scborromeo.org/ccc/p123a9p6.htm&sa=U&ei=7VnHT6KEK4Xw0gH-yK2xDw&ved=0CBsQFjAE&sig2=mM0xWu0ckpL1Er9OMhdptA&usg=AFQjCNHiqSVKoAliS4PnK01GJw-cGThxZg

Define they have done.
The question in relation to the Mediatrix of All Graces title is whether graces continue to pass through her to this day. And as you said, it is not required belief. .
All this is also defined CCC 967 to 970 CCC the footnotes will take you deeper in defining that Mary is the Mother in order of Grace. Though I noticed they are slighty off above. The CCC context is correct though. Nevertheless the CCC relates back to LG V-II as I have said. for further understanding.
My own understanding and approach to Mary is probably more in line with Eastern Tradition .
How so?
than some of the more extreme positions taken in the Latin Church…
What is the extreme position in church teaching? The one you state that was never defined or did you have something else in mind? Thus the “original” question. 🤷
 
Nobody is disagreeing with history here. Some are disagreeing with a particular interpretation of history which they find is so decontextualized that it is not faithful to the tradition which they have received. The Theotokos has always been venerated in the East by virtue of theosis and the incarnation. Decontextualize what is said about her by the Eastern Fathers at your own peril.
 
Nobody is disagreeing with history here.
Actually that would be incorrect as you see from the above post in relation to the CCC/V-II. Thus an incorrect assessment. However, I do note that “everyone” is not disagreeing.
Some are disagreeing with a particular interpretation of history which they find is so decontextualized that it is not faithful to the tradition which they have received…
Key phrase “The Tradition which they have received”

Course that depends how one interprets or understands History in content/context as opposed to the understanding of Tradition which is still defined in real time. Apparently History is still not fully defined as today will be tommorrows history yet more clearly defined. I agree some do not like this, it is a very real truth nevertheless, which is often not fully understood but through time. These “some” then do this at their own “peril” as you mention below? Fair enough.
The Theotokos has always been venerated in the East by virtue of theosis and the incarnation. Decontextualize what is said about her by the Eastern Fathers at your own peril.
I guess the “at you own peril” aspect when we speak of decontextualize would be a two way street then? Perhaps its a comment and point you make that everyone should keep in mind? I say Amen to that! Is 1854 history? I do believe so.

Nevertheless since we are talking “Orthodox” and Marian Beliefs.

So what is the correct verion of the Dormition “historically” since we are engaged here? How does John the Theologians fit into this. And which sight should be considered accurate? What do you personally make of his Thesis of the Dormition by John the Theologian above?

Do you know for fact who was at the Dormition as a witness and where is this recorded?

Do you know for fact where it occured?

How do you know it didn’t occur in Ephesus? Which seems pretty possible?
 
I guess the “at you own peril” aspect when we speak of decontextualize would be a two way street then? Perhaps its a comment and point you make that everyone should keep in mind? I say Amen to that! Is 1854 history? I do believe so.
No, it really is not a two way street. The Orthodox do not use Western texts ripped out of their propter context to justify their Marian devotions.
So what is the correct verion of the Dormition “historically” since we are engaged here? How does John the Theologians fit into this. And which sight should be considered accurate? What do you personally make of his Thesis of the Dormition by John the Theologian above?
The website you linked to states clearly that the text appears first in the sixth century and that it is not authored by John the Theologian.
Do you know for fact who was at the Dormition as a witness and where is this recorded?
No.
Do you know for fact where it occured?
No.
How do you know it didn’t occur in Ephesus? Which seems pretty possible?
We don’t. The Church is not a magic divining instrument that one could find straight out of the I Ching. The Church reveals God to the world. Whether the dormition occurred at Ephesus, whether the world is flat, or if quintessence exists, the Church cannot tell us.
 
The Orthodox do not use texts to justify their Marian devotions…
Really, then how did they come up with the Dormition? 🤷 Do you have an eye witness?
The website you linked to states clearly that the text appears first in the sixth century and that it is not authored by John the Theologian…
No it states… “This Greek narrative is one of the earliest witnesses to the “Bethlehem” traditions of the Virgin Mary’s Dormition, so-called because some of their events take place in Bethlehem. This is in contrast to other early traditions in which the setting is limited to Jerusalem. This narrative is probably from the sixth century, although it is difficult to be certain. It has tightly condensed earlier traditions that are evident in two Syriac manuscripts from the sixth century, as well as in later Syriac, Ethiopic, and Arabic narratives.”

google.com/url?q=http://pages.uoregon.edu/sshoemak/texts/dormitionG2/dormitionG2.htm&sa=U&ei=hIHHT9rVLMiL0QGq5cziDw&ved=0CBEQFjAA&sig2=QkhVP4n0CSW-98H5SiX_vg&usg=AFQjCNFmtM1Q2n8gdnLgaNIe8i7d7V0L-g

You post the correct one then, since I suspect whichever one I chose won’t be up to your standard. I have no issue with that, I understand “where” the work came from and when.
No. No.We don’t. The Church is not a magic divining instrument that one could find straight out of the I Ching. The Church reveals God to the world. Whether the dormition occurred at Ephesus, whether the world is flat, or if quintessence exists, the Church cannot tell us.
But it has with the Dorimition, and thus you rightly uphold this!

We don’t have the Apostles testimony for this, do you?

“The Orthodox Church teaches that Mary died a natural death, like any human being; that her soul was received by Christ upon death; and that her body was resurrected on the third day after her repose, at which time she was taken up, bodily only, into heaven. Her tomb was found empty on the third day.” Wiki-Pedia

So is this not correct? Then where is the “evidence” of testimony?

Cav what I see as “historical” factual evidence I post, thats what I am asking you to do? If you don’t have it or can’t then state that. So then YOUR belief is based on a Tradition which in fact cannot be “proven” with the Dormition?

My oh my and we should talk about the IC in the same regard right? 😃

Whats the Queen of Heavens responsibility from the Eastern perspective? Would Love to hear this. 🤷
 
Really, then how did they come up with the Dormition? 🤷 Do you have an eye witness?
An eye witness who recorded it? No.
No it states… “This Greek narrative is one of the earliest witnesses to the “Bethlehem” traditions of the Virgin Mary’s Dormition, so-called because some of their events take place in Bethlehem. This is in contrast to other early traditions in which the setting is limited to Jerusalem. This narrative is probably from the sixth century, although it is difficult to be certain. It has tightly condensed earlier traditions that are evident in two Syriac manuscripts from the sixth century, as well as in later Syriac, Ethiopic, and Arabic narratives.”
Read it again: This Greek narrative is one of the earliest witnesses to the “Bethlehem” traditions of the Virgin Mary’s Dormition, so-called because some of their events take place in Bethlehem.* This is in contrast to other early traditions in which the setting is limited to Jerusalem.* This narrative is probably from the sixth century, although it is difficult to be certain.* It has tightly condensed earlier traditions that are evident in two Syriac manuscripts from the sixth century, as well as in later Syriac, Ethiopic, and Arabic narratives.The bolded sentence refers to the Bethlehem Narrative, not to the Jerusalem narratives
You post the correct one then, since I suspect whichever one I chose won’t be up to your standard. I have no issue with that, I understand “where” the work came from and when.
The “correct” narrative is the one we read for the feast of the Dormition. All other narratives will vary in their degree of correctness based on what truths they reveal.
But it has with the Dorimition, and thus you rightly uphold this!
Uphold, yes. But not in the same manner as the hypostatic union or the incarnation.
We don’t have the Apostles testimony for this, do you?
Nope.
“The Orthodox Church teaches that Mary died a natural death, like any human being; that her soul was received by Christ upon death; and that her body was resurrected on the third day after her repose, at which time she was taken up, bodily only, into heaven. Her tomb was found empty on the third day.” Wiki-Pedia
So is this not correct? Then where is the “evidence” of testimony?
Not fully, no.
Cav what I see as “historical” factual evidence I post, thats what I am asking you to do? If you don’t have it or can’t then state that. So then YOUR belief is based on a Tradition which in fact cannot be “proven” with the Dormition?
Historical evidence for the end of the Theotokos’ life is scant if it exists at all. We have quite a few pseudepigraphical works, but those can hardly be considered historical evidence.
My oh my and we should talk about the IC in the same regard right? 😃
No, because the dormition narrative is not dogmatic for us. It is like an icon. We hold it to be true not because it is a physically accurate depiction of what happened upon the repose of the Theotokos, but because it reveals a greater truth to us. Just as it does not matter if my icon of Christ is composed of wood, paper, or stone, or if it is painted in acrylic, egg tempura, wax, or printed with ink, or if the image on it resembles what Christ physically looked like in the slightest, so long as the truth revealed by the icon remains the same, so too does it not matter if the dormition is an accurate depiction of the repose of the Theotokos, because truth is not correspondence.
Whats the Queen of Heavens responsibility from the Eastern perspective? Would Love to hear this. 🤷
This is the sort of stuff I’m talking about. The title Queen of Heaven is simply a poetic title for the Theotokos. It was never intended to have a particular dogma or responsibility attached to it. When taken in the context of the incarnation, it should be obvious that Queen of heaven is a term that refers not to a particular responsibility, but to the honor that is due to the Mother of our God. She is a Queen by honor, to be honored above all other kings, saints and created beings, with the exception of her Son, for the role she played in the economy of our salvation. Why people are not content to stop at that, but would wish to extrapolate from that poetic title ideas and interpretations unknown to the fathers, I do not understand.
 
She is our Mother, the most dear one to our Lord, and our greatest example of humility and sanctity.
As a Lutheran, this is where we draw the line. We would say that Jesus is the ‘greatest example of humility and sanctity.’
 
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