Dearest Fr. John, bless,
I’m not sure I understand. As the official
Relatio of Bishop Gasser asserted, the Ecumenical Council will always be the norm for promulgating the most solemn doctrinal decrees (i.e. dogmas) of the Church. I don’t know why you would think there is anything to “return to” as if
Pastor Aeternus somehow cancelled the existence or utility of an Ecumenical Council.
I am afraid I am only intermittently involved in this thread. Could you please direct me to the posts that claim that the bishops only advise the Pope on a matter of doctrine, and that he can veto the bishops?
Whoever stated that was simply wrong.
There are only two possible scenarios to consider here:
(1) One portion of the bishops is orthodox, and another portion heterodox. Whoever the Pope sides with is the orthodox group. In this instance, the Pope is actually making a judgment
based on their teaching. Is that mere “advice?”
(2) All bishops are heterodox, and the Pope is the only orthodox bishop left. All the bishops advise the Pope on the matter, and the Pope decides to go against all their “advice” because they are all heterodox.
Scenario #2
cannot happen - it is simply impossible - as explained in the Petrine views thread, because there can never come a time when the Pope is the only orthodox bishop left on earth. Only scenario (1) is possible, and the Pope is
constrained by Divine Law to make a decision in communion with those other orthodox bishops.
As far as an Ecumenical Council goes, the official
Relatio of Bishop Gasser affirmed that all the bishops sit in judgment WITH the Pope, not that the Pope sits in judgment over all the other bishops. Even the old Catholic Encyclopedia affirms that in an Ecumenical Council, the ENTIRE college is infallible, not merely the Pope, so there is no way that it is all on the Pope’s say-so.
What the Catholic Church
does affirm is that the head bishop (i.e., the Pope) is the only bishop in the college (whether dispersed or in the formal setting of an Ecumenical Council) whose consent is absolutely necessary. If bishop X from New York does not agree, that does not affect the validity of the doctrinal decrees of the council. But if the bishop of Rome, as head bishop, does not agree, then it does indeed affect the validity of those doctrinal decrees.
But the source of the misunderstanding might be the strange idea that the Pope is the ONLY orthodox bishop in an Ecumenical Council (or, alternately, in the whole world). Assuming he was the only orthodox bishop in an Ecumenical Council, then and only then would there be such a thing as a “veto power.” However,
such a scenario is simply impossible, so I don’t know where this idea of a “veto power” comes from. If a Pope does not consent, it is only because there are OTHER bishops as well who do not consent. It is impossible that the doctrinal decision of the Pope is the ONLY decision that matters, since there will always be other orthodox bishops along with him. That being so, the Pope is constrained by divine law to make a decision in communion with those orthodox bishops.
Humbly,
Marduk