M
mardukm
Guest
Dear brother Malphono,
(1) This co-adjutor bishop you mention, was the “veto power” with regards to decisions by the incumbent that might be against religion, or just in general.
(2) Why was this co-adjutor given this “veto-power?” Was the incumbent actually impaired in some way?
(3) When you say “Rome can always declare…,” are you saying that the Pope can do this arbitrarily, or does the bishop actually have to be impaired in some way?
(4) If the Pope actually had such power to impede the ordinary authority of a local bishop, why would he need to resort to such a round-about way of impeding the local bishop’s authority? Why doesn’t the Pope simply command, “I don’t like you. Off you go.?” My impression is, of course, that either the Pope does not actually have the power to impede the ordinary authority of a bishop in his local diocese, or the Pope himself knows that, even if he had such authority, it is constrained by the divine constitution of the Church which affirms that the authority of a bishop in his local diocese is also of divine origin.
VERY IMPORTANT NOTE: During the time that the old CE was written, it states (see article on “Bishops”) that it was still a matter of theological debate whether the ordinary jurisdiction of bishops was immediate (i.e., directly from God) or delegated from the Pope - (this, despite the fact that Pastor Aeternus itself describes the ordinary jurisdiction of bishops as “immediate”). The old CE itself testifies to this ambivalence regarding the jurisdiction of bishops - some articles affirm the former position, others the latter position. I guess certain quarters in the Latin Catholic Church at the turn of the 19th-20th centuries thought it was still not settled, despite the clear statement from Pastor Aeternus, because it was not “defined” as such at V1.

That would explain the old CE article’s statement that even though the splitting of dioceses by the Pope has always been with the consent of the local ordinary, he is not bound by that condition. Of course, on the principle that the ordinary jurisdiction of a local bishop is indeed immediate (i.e., from God directly), then the Pope would indeed be bound to that condition.
Interestingly (and unfortunately), even though V2 is even more forceful and direct about the Traditional Catholic belief in the immediate jurisdiction of a bishop in his local diocese, this has not prevented Absolutist Petrine advocates from maintaining their heterodox ideas because, as they say, V2 never proclaimed any dogmas.

Of course, a Catholic faithful to the Magisterium should know that just because a doctrine is not proclaimed dogma by an exercise of the extraordinary Magisterium, such doctrines can still be infallible and thus authoritative by virtue of the constant, universal ordinary Magisterium of the Church.
Blessings,
Marduk
OK. Some questions:Depends, really, on how he’s charged. IIRC there was at least one case where a co-adjutor was named with something of a “veto power” over the incumbent bishop. Rome can always declare that the incumbent is “non compis mentis” or in some other way “impaired” from carrying out his office.
(1) This co-adjutor bishop you mention, was the “veto power” with regards to decisions by the incumbent that might be against religion, or just in general.
(2) Why was this co-adjutor given this “veto-power?” Was the incumbent actually impaired in some way?
(3) When you say “Rome can always declare…,” are you saying that the Pope can do this arbitrarily, or does the bishop actually have to be impaired in some way?
(4) If the Pope actually had such power to impede the ordinary authority of a local bishop, why would he need to resort to such a round-about way of impeding the local bishop’s authority? Why doesn’t the Pope simply command, “I don’t like you. Off you go.?” My impression is, of course, that either the Pope does not actually have the power to impede the ordinary authority of a bishop in his local diocese, or the Pope himself knows that, even if he had such authority, it is constrained by the divine constitution of the Church which affirms that the authority of a bishop in his local diocese is also of divine origin.
I do recall reading in the old Catholic Encyclopedia that the process of reorganizing dioceses is not contained in canon law, but is governed by custom. The normative process for splitting the diocese is for the Pope to do so with the consent of the ordinary. The old CE does opine that while the Pope is not bound by this condition, it has nevertheless always been done that way. The old CE also notes that a diocese is split (because it has become too large for proper administration) normally because the ordinary himself requests it anyway.Yes, but Rome can and does split diocese at will. And if such can be split, they can be joined.![]()
VERY IMPORTANT NOTE: During the time that the old CE was written, it states (see article on “Bishops”) that it was still a matter of theological debate whether the ordinary jurisdiction of bishops was immediate (i.e., directly from God) or delegated from the Pope - (this, despite the fact that Pastor Aeternus itself describes the ordinary jurisdiction of bishops as “immediate”). The old CE itself testifies to this ambivalence regarding the jurisdiction of bishops - some articles affirm the former position, others the latter position. I guess certain quarters in the Latin Catholic Church at the turn of the 19th-20th centuries thought it was still not settled, despite the clear statement from Pastor Aeternus, because it was not “defined” as such at V1.
Interestingly (and unfortunately), even though V2 is even more forceful and direct about the Traditional Catholic belief in the immediate jurisdiction of a bishop in his local diocese, this has not prevented Absolutist Petrine advocates from maintaining their heterodox ideas because, as they say, V2 never proclaimed any dogmas.
Blessings,
Marduk