Orthodox Eucharist valid but illicit?

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I am pretty sure that Eastern Orthodox churches have valid apostolic succession, so their priests are valid and likewise all the sacraments are also valid. However, I have heard that they are also illicit. Can someone clearlify what this means?🤷

Thanks,

Pietro Contolini
 
I am pretty sure that Eastern Orthodox churches have valid apostolic succession, so their priests are valid and likewise all the sacraments are also valid. However, I have heard that they are also illicit. Can someone clearlify what this means?🤷

Thanks,

Pietro Contolini
The Eastern Orthodox do not need the permission of the Church of Rome or from the Pope to celebrate the Sacraments. The Orthodox have their own authority to follow the will of God. This authority is the same as it is in the Church of Rome. It is the Holy Spirit which resides in the Church that guarantees this authority. While Rome enjoys her authority so do the Orthodox. The problem with Catholics is not understanding this authority that resides in the Orthodox Church. The problem is also within Orthodoxy which needs to accept the authority that resides in Rome. We need as Catholics and Orthodox to come to accept each other’s authority as an important link to the Apostolic authority that God had given for us. To say it is illicit is a slap on the face on God who had originate His Orthodox Church. Again it is also wrong for the Orthodox to say things about the Catholic Church that can be damaging to their relationship with each other and to God. The Pope and the Papacy is an important link to this Apostolic authority but it is also true that the collegitive authority that resides in Orthodoxy is another important link to this Apostolic foundation. What God is seeking from us is for us to acknowledge each other’s authority without diminishing our own. Once we do this unity will be possible.
 
My tone doesn’t sound right in this post so I’ll retry.
 
I think I posted this in the wrong subforum, because I’m talking about the Eastern Orthodox churches not the Eastern Catholic Churches in case there was any confusion about that.
 
Others probably know more than I, but consider the fact that Catholics are permitted to receive the Eucharist in an Orthodox Church for a good reason (like they are unable to approach a Catholic priest for it) and only IF the Orthodox Pastor gives his permission (which probably is very rare). So it cannot be illicit in those circumstances, as it is permitted.

We make things so complicated at times, don’t we?
 
From the Catholic point of view, the Eastern Orthodox Churches’ sacraments are valid and are not in any way illicit.

Note that while the Catholic Church accepts the Orthodox sacraments as fully valid, some Orthodox do not accept any Catholic sacraments, even baptism, as valid.

From the Catholic point of view, Eastern Orthodox individuals are guilty of sin only if they are involved in Schism, advocating the continued Schism of the Orthodox and Catholic Churches. Catholics believe that Schism is among the gravest of sins, and that all Christians should pray for the reunion of all Christians, as in the Early Church.
 
The situation between the Catholic and Orthodox Churches really doesn’t fit neatly into these kinds of categories. From the Catholic perspective an Orthodox priest is licitly acting under the auspices of their Bishop and Church; it is the relationship between the Churches themselves that are irregular, not the relationships within those Churches.

Depending on the Orthodox Church in question there are even standing, official agreements and arrangements for the sharing of Sacraments, so licity is a difficult concept to apply to the relationship. I think it is better, from a Catholic perspective, to view Orthodox Churches as true Churches in an irregular relationship with the rest of the Catholic Communion, and even this approach has it’s own flaws and caveats.

Of course I recognize that the Orthodox Churches have their own views on the matter; I don’t intend to speak for them.

Peace and God bless!
 
Catholics believe that Schism is among the gravest of sins, and that all Christians should pray for the reunion of all Christians, as in the Early Church.
The Orthodox believe that Heresy is among the gravest sins, as in the Early Church, ie, in the Orthodox and Catholic Church.

It must be said that the Catholic Church often tolerates heresy in its ranks for the sake of apparent union. The Orthodox Church often tolerates schism among its churches for the sake of the Truth.

Just trying to state the positions from both sides.

Christus natus est!
 
From the Catholic point of view, the Eastern Orthodox Churches’ sacraments are valid and are not in any way illicit.
I am not sure this is right?

If (from the Catholic stance) Orthodox sacraments are valid and licit, why does attendance to an Orthodox Divine Liturgy (even without reception of the Eucharist) not satisfy the obligation to assist at Mass?

tee
 
I am not sure this is right?

If (from the Catholic stance) Orthodox sacraments are valid and licit, why does attendance to an Orthodox Divine Liturgy (even without reception of the Eucharist) not satisfy the obligation to assist at Mass?

tee
Catholics are required by Canon Law to attend a liturgy in Communion with the Catholic Church, which, unfortunately, does not presently include the Eastern Orthodox Churches.
 
Since the Eastern Orthodox are not baptized members of the Catholic Church, Catholic Canon Law does not apply to them, so “licit” and “illicit” are not applicable terms to use.
 
If (from the Catholic stance) Orthodox sacraments are valid and licit, why does attendance to an Orthodox Divine Liturgy (even without reception of the Eucharist) not satisfy the obligation to assist at Mass?
Whether it satisfies that “obligation” or not depends on whom you ask. Even canon lawyers are not unanimous in saying it doesn’t. As I’ve said several times before in this forum, a very strong argument can be made that it does.
 
Here is the answer from tradition :

Orthodox sacraments are valid but illicit. Due to schism they are non-efficacious. However this is only true in the case of persons who are formal schismatics.
 
So for anyone who did not have a place in the schism, it isn’t illicit?

The Catholic/orthodox case seems very unclear
 
Here is the answer from tradition :

Orthodox sacraments are valid but illicit. Due to schism they are non-efficacious. However this is only true in the case of persons who are formal schismatics.
Can you tell me please what that means? :confused: If they are “non efficacious” then it would seem that they’re simply not valid. But of course even Rome says they ARE valid. And as for the last sentence … huh??? :confused::confused::confused: What??? :confused::confused::confused:
 
So for anyone who did not have a place in the schism, it isn’t illicit?

The Catholic/orthodox case seems very unclear
Its illicit still but the efficacious for those who are in invincible ignorance and material schism.
 
Can you tell me please what that means? :confused: If they are “non efficacious” then it would seem that they’re simply not valid. But of course even Rome says they ARE valid. And as for the last sentence … huh??? :confused::confused::confused: What??? :confused::confused::confused:
The schismatic sacraments are valid. Validity means that they are real sacraments and that these acts are not just a performance I fancy clothes like the Anglicans. Illicit means that although there is a real sacrament, it is performed illegally or uncanonically because it is being performed without the authority of the Catholic Church for sacraments belong to the Church of Christ. Schismatic perform these sacraments of the Church without the authority given to them by the church. The sacraments in schismatic churches lack efficacy. That is the grace in them is not conferred to the receiver of the sacrament despite the sacrament being real for only in Christ’s church can grace be received though the sacraments.

A material schismatic is someone who is born into a schismatic church and is a member through no fault of their own. They are thus not guilty and the rules stipulate above do not apply to them for they are members of the body of Christ through their baptism and are in some way, unknown to us, part of Christs Church.
 
Whether it satisfies that “obligation” or not depends on whom you ask. Even canon lawyers are not unanimous in saying it doesn’t. As I’ve said several times before in this forum, a very strong argument can be made that it does.
I don’t have the canons at hand, but I belive the Code of Canon Law says the Liturgy must be of a “Catholic rite” to fulfill the obligation. Some Canon lawyers interpret “Catholic rite” as meaning it has to be a liturgy celebrated by a Catholic priest. Other Canon lawyers interpret “Catholic rite” as any liturgy that is valid according to the Catholic Church, whether it is celebrated by a Catholic, Eastern, Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox or Church of the East priest. I think the latter interpretation makes more sense. Legalists would agree with the former interpretation.
 
I don’t have the canons at hand, but I belive the Code of Canon Law says the Liturgy must be of a “Catholic rite” to fulfill the obligation. Some Canon lawyers interpret “Catholic rite” as meaning it has to be a liturgy celebrated by a Catholic priest. Other Canon lawyers interpret “Catholic rite” as any liturgy that is valid according to the Catholic Church, whether it is celebrated by a Catholic, Eastern, Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox or Church of the East priest. I think the latter interpretation makes more sense. Legalists would agree with the former interpretation.
Some say that such arcane and unnecessary legalism is what keeps many Protestants and Orthodox away from the Catholic Church…

Christus natus est!
 
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