T
ThereseFrancis
Guest
I now come to understand that the concept of original sin in the West is the same as the concept of ancient sin in the East (although there is mostly confusion and misunderstanding of Orthodox about Catholics and vice versa on the ground about this).
As I view it, according to Orthodox, it is Adam who is guilty of sin, but the whole human race continues to receive the penalty of this sin though are not guilty. There is a difference in formulation (without using words like guilt, penalty, etc.; and using the word “sin” is two manners) but the Catholic Church maintains the same as is found in CCC 404:
“How did the sin of Adam become the sin of all his descendants? The whole human race is in Adam “as one body of one man”. By this “unity of the human race” all men are implicated in Adam’s sin, as all are implicated in Christ’s justice. Still, the transmission of original sin is a mystery that we cannot fully understand. But we do know by Revelation that Adam had received original holiness and justice not for himself alone, but for all human nature. By yielding to the tempter, Adam and Eve committed a personal sin, but this sin affected the human nature that they would then transmit in a fallen state. It is a sin which will be transmitted by propagation to all mankind, that is, by the transmission of a human nature deprived of original holiness and justice. And that is why original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.” (My emphasis added)
According to Catholic dogma, however, Mary was saved and redeemed by Christ by protecting her from this “sin (in a sense of the fallen state)” or “penalty”. My question is now this: according to the Orthodox Faith, if there is no Immaculate Conception and Mary was conceived in this “fallen state” or “penalty” from the sins of Adam, how can she be full of grace, all-holy theotokos?
As I view it, according to Orthodox, it is Adam who is guilty of sin, but the whole human race continues to receive the penalty of this sin though are not guilty. There is a difference in formulation (without using words like guilt, penalty, etc.; and using the word “sin” is two manners) but the Catholic Church maintains the same as is found in CCC 404:
“How did the sin of Adam become the sin of all his descendants? The whole human race is in Adam “as one body of one man”. By this “unity of the human race” all men are implicated in Adam’s sin, as all are implicated in Christ’s justice. Still, the transmission of original sin is a mystery that we cannot fully understand. But we do know by Revelation that Adam had received original holiness and justice not for himself alone, but for all human nature. By yielding to the tempter, Adam and Eve committed a personal sin, but this sin affected the human nature that they would then transmit in a fallen state. It is a sin which will be transmitted by propagation to all mankind, that is, by the transmission of a human nature deprived of original holiness and justice. And that is why original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.” (My emphasis added)
According to Catholic dogma, however, Mary was saved and redeemed by Christ by protecting her from this “sin (in a sense of the fallen state)” or “penalty”. My question is now this: according to the Orthodox Faith, if there is no Immaculate Conception and Mary was conceived in this “fallen state” or “penalty” from the sins of Adam, how can she be full of grace, all-holy theotokos?
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