Orthodox teaching on Purgatory, or, lack thereof...

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Originally Posted by Ghosty View Post
Yes, this is precisely the point. Saints stand out because they have done more than the typical Faithful, and serve as exemplary models for Holiness. It has nothing to do with quotas or piling up an “extra amount of works”. The funny thing is that this objection demonstrates a misunderstanding of the Latin teaching on the Saints.
Peace and God bless!
I honestly don’t see how it is a misunderstanding when the CC uses it as an explanation itself.

Of course people can have effectual prayer for others. Not because there prayers are somehow like a currency that God can apply elsewhere, but because in his love for his creation he chooses to grant them. And yes the prayers of saints may be more effectual - because they are further along the path of union to Christ and so have hearts and wills more in accordance to God’s.

And yes things like the examples and writing of great Christians can benefit us all. That is indeed done through temporal effects - actual temporal effects like reading the book the saint wrote. But even that is not somehow blotting out sin or the temporal effects of it.

And to my mind that is the rub - the Catholic understanding of temporal punishment for sins seems to be abstracted in a way that the Orthodox are not willing to allow.

Anyway - it doesn’t seem like what you are describing is the Orthodox teaching, since the Orthodox don’t believe it. You are describing the Eastern Catholic teaching.
Here is what the catechism says about treasury of merits:
In the Communion of Saints
1474 The Christian who seeks to purify himself of his sin and to become holy with the help of God’s grace is not alone. "The life of each of God’s children is joined in Christ and through Christ in a wonderful way to the life of all the other Christian brethren in the supernatural unity of the Mystical Body of Christ, as in a single mystical person."86
1475 In the communion of saints, "a perennial link of charity exists between the faithful who have already reached their heavenly home, those who are expiating their sins in purgatory and those who are still pilgrims on earth. between them there is, too, an abundant exchange of all good things."87 In this wonderful exchange, the holiness of one profits others, well beyond the harm that the sin of one could cause others. Thus recourse to the communion of saints lets the contrite sinner be more promptly and efficaciously purified of the punishments for sin.
1476 We also call these spiritual goods of the communion of saints the Church’s treasury, which is "not the sum total of the material goods which have accumulated during the course of the centuries. On the contrary the ‘treasury of the Church’ is the infinite value, which can never be exhausted, which Christ’s merits have before God. They were offered so that the whole of mankind could be set free from sin and attain communion with the Father. In Christ, the Redeemer himself, the satisfactions and merits of his Redemption exist and find their efficacy."88
1477 "This treasury includes as well the prayers and good works of the Blessed Virgin Mary. They are truly immense, unfathomable, and even pristine in their value before God. In the treasury, too, are the prayers and good works of all the saints, all those who have followed in the footsteps of Christ the Lord and by his grace have made their lives holy and carried out the mission in the unity of the Mystical Body."89
From my reading this is exactly what Ghosty is saying. And while I cannot be sure what, exactly Bluegoat means by “the CC uses it as an explanation itself”, the material from the CCC seems closer to what Bluegoat affirms. I am reading about ongoing, continuing interaction - a perennial link of charity- by which we support one another.

The catechism also talks about “temporal punishments” (see also post 23)
Obtaining indulgence from God through the Church
1478 An indulgence is obtained through the Church who, by virtue of the power of binding and loosing granted her by Christ Jesus, intervenes in favor of individual Christians and opens for them the treasury of the merits of Christ and the saints to obtain from the Father of mercies the remission of the temporal punishments due for their sins. Thus the Church does not want simply to come to the aid of these Christians, but also to spur them to works of devotion, penance, and charity.90
Again note, this is not simply doling out currency, but exhorting works of devotion, penance, and charity, tapping into the inexhaustible and perennial ink of charity.
 
an indulgence of 500 days is granted;
“**a plenary indulgence is granted at the hour of death **to those who have often during life performed this pious exercise, as long as, having confessed and received Communion, or at least having sorrow for their sins, they invoke the most holy name of Jesus on their lips, if possible, or at least in their hearts, and accept death from the hand of God as the price of sin.”

A 500 day plenary indulgence is granted at the hour of death? Why the need if meant to be penance in this life only?
That is not what had been said by Monica (see also Ghosty post 10). In the early church, periods of canonical excommunication for grace sins could be shortened through following a regime of penance, charity, prayer.

Yes there were regimes that would have required literacy, jd29, but there were others that did not. (In any case, I don’t get your point.)

It is from this tradition that the counting of time emerged. And we have continued to talk of the efficacy of these works in terms of equivalent dispensation of temporal canonical penalties. It’s rather like using a currency value to in discussing the value of work of commodities. Highly abstract, but not unfathomable.
 
That is not what had been said by Monica (see also Ghosty post 10). In the early church, periods of canonical excommunication for grace sins could be shortened through following a regime of penance, charity, prayer.

Yes there were regimes that would have required literacy, jd29, but there were others that did not. (In any case, I don’t get your point.)

It is from this tradition that the counting of time emerged. And we have continued to talk of the efficacy of these works in terms of equivalent dispensation of temporal canonical penalties. It’s rather like using a currency value to in discussing the value of work of commodities. Highly abstract, but not unfathomable.
Maybe I’m not understanding. But my question was if indulgences of 500 days were not meant for purgatory then why were given at the time of death when “days” ceased?
 
So in the early Church, when most people were illiterate, individuals were granted shorter penences for reading Scripture at at time when almost no one had copies of Scripture in their homes to read? :confused:
Not to mention that penances as such came later. In the early Church one only did confession upon entry into the church, and therefore there wasn’t much space to be assigned a penance.
 
Not to mention that penances as such came later. In the early Church one only did confession upon entry into the church, and therefore there wasn’t much space to be assigned a penance.
I think that this post is just totally wrong. But perhaps I am misunderstanding it. Could you explain it a little more?
 
Maybe I’m not understanding. But my question was if indulgences of 500 days were not meant for purgatory then why were given at the time of death when “days” ceased?
Right. The use if “time” as a measure of indulgence is historical, as that is the manner in which indulgences against canonical excommunication were dispensed. So time is still used as a measure of gravity or efficacy, but it is an abstraction.
 
Right. The use if “time” as a measure of indulgence is historical, as that is the manner in which indulgences against canonical excommunication were dispensed. So time is still used as a measure of gravity or efficacy, but it is an abstraction.
So wouldn’t the indulgence be meaningless in any form of abstract measure to one at the time of death?
 
I am not at all understanding what the problem here is with the concept of the Treasury of Merit. The Catholic Church has a very narrow set of dogmatic teachings on the matter, and I’m not aware what opposition there could possibly be to that teaching. The dogma is set out clearly by Trent:

If anyone says that the good works of a justified man are gifts of God to such an extent that they are not also the good merits of the justified man himself, or that, by the good works he performs through the Grace of God and the merits of Jesus Christ (of Whom he is a living member), the justified man does not truly merit an increase of Grace, life everlasting, and, provided that he dies in the state of Grace, the attainment of that everlasting life, and even an increase of glory: let him be anathema.”

Does not Scripture say that God will return to every man in good measure according to his works? Does not Scripture also say that God will give even more to those who already have? And does not Scripture exhort us to share not only in the sorrows of other Christians, but also our joys and gifts and rewards from God?

That there is merit and an accompanying Treasury of Merit is undeniable. I think the issue lies with how this Merit is shared with other Christians. I think it all depends on how one understands “Merit.” If you see it as some kind of currency of exchange, I can appreciate the objections. However, if one sees Merit for what it actually is - i.e., God’s own Grace - then I don’t see how it cannot be shared with others.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear Rocket_Man,
So wouldn’t the indulgence be meaningless in any form of abstract measure to one at the time of death?
It’s not meaningless. An indulgence (or Merit) is simply the Latin terminology for expressing the Grace of God that we experience in the process of sanctification/ divinization/ theosis/ purification. The “number of days” is only an abstract way of expressing that certain measure of Grace, expressed in the language used by the early Church to refer to the time taken away from one’s canonical punishment in view of the penance one has already performed (in the early Church, this reduction of time from canonical punishment was known as an “indulgence”). But what goes on in the afterlife is not actually (because it cannot be) quantified in “days.” This Grace is what deifies or divinizes us, allowing us to more fully share in the divine life. It starts in this life, and continues to the next. Latins specify this state in the afterlife as “Purgatory.” Easterns and Orientals refer to it as “Hades.”

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Nine_Two:
My original post said that what you said didn’t make any sense from an Eastern perspective. That doesn’t mean that I’m in disagreement with every single last thing in the post. If I say “The aardvark yawns the chicken as the sun rises at dawn”, you’ll say that doesn’t make any sense. Does that mean I can accuse you of denying the sun rises at dawn?
Then please be specific when I ask what you’re referring to. “That doesn’t make sense” was actually your second post, and it was in response to me saying that I couldn’t respond unless I knew what you were questioning. :rolleyes:

You didn’t exactly give me much to build a response from, so I went with everything I said in the post, none of which involved a “treasury of merit”, or Saint’s merits in life being applied to others.
You made the statement that the saints interceed for us immediatly after saying they are saints by virtue of going beyond what was required. In the context of a treasury of merits, it all sounds like that. I’m sorry if I interprete it incorrectly, but that’s what it seems to indicate.
I wasn’t speaking about the “treasury of merits”, so it wasn’t part of the context as far as I can see. I had already said many times that I don’t like that analogy and don’t use it.
You have however said it is the exact same belief that exists in the East, and then go into explanations that certainly don’t follow the thinking of the East. Like most results of scholasticism, it is convoluted.
Where did I ever say this?
I said your post didn’t make sense, from an Eastern perspecitve, and that therefore claiming agreement was incorrect. I didn’t claim any specific parts were wrong or couldn’t be reconciled.
Which is why I couldn’t respond to you properly. I didn’t know what you took issue with, and everything I said (intercession of the Saints and growing in Theosis through extraordinary devotion and works) is indeed fully Eastern.
I have issue becaus going above and beyond means there is something to go beyond. Certainly they didn’t go beyond Christs commands, as I said, read what they wrote about themselves if you want dirt on them. With the exception of the Theotokos none were spotless. Additionally numerous saints are such for a single act committed during otherwise all-to-human lives, as evidence I give the demonstration of many Martyrs. Many others pulled themselves up from the depths of depravity. St. Ignatius of Loyola for example was scum of the earth before he saw the light and quite accidently began the counter-reformation. He continued to see himselfas scum. Eastern saints tend to be much the same. They didn’t go “above and beyond” in their own minds, the reason they are saints is because they did their best to meet the commands of Christ.
It’s not about them being spotless, it’s about their works being exemplary. This is the very reason a person is Canonized. It’s why the Church doesn’t Canonize every Christian who dies in the bosom of the Faith, despite them being saints in Heaven just like anyone else there. It’s precisely how the Orthodox website I linked to defines them, too.

I honestly don’t know where you’re getting the idea that anyone would think Sainthood means the person had some extra pile of “good works”, or that they’d be spotless. That seems like a straw-man to me since no one has suggested such a thing.
I understand fully how easily it is to accidently insult someone over the internet, but questioning ones understanding of their own tradition, when you yourself advertise belonging to another (even if you say you’re practicing in another) can’t be anything but insulting.
I questioned it because it appeared that you were denying the intervention of the Saints, and the good works we do on Earth on behalf of the dead, both of which are staples of Byzantine tradition. When I asked for clarification of what you were questioning, you didn’t specify, so I could only assume you meant the whole post.

Also, in fairness, you have also recently denied (it seems) that good works increase our sanctification, which is also a staple of Byzantine theology and practice, so all these things together do give me reason to be unsure of how much you know about Byzantine tradition. This may all be a misunderstanding on my part, and I’m fully willing to accept that, but I had to go with what I was getting and obviously I came off as a jerk. My schedule nowadays doesn’t leave me much time for editing my posts, let alone editing for tone. Again, I’m sorry. :o

And a clarification: I am Canonically Latin, but I don’t practice the Latin tradition and haven’t for many years; I’m only canonically a Latin because that’s what I was Baptized in, and my Canonical transfer isn’t complete, but I haven’t even been to a non-Eastern liturgy in years. That’s why my profile says “practicing Melkite”. Canonical status really doesn’t have any bearing whatsoever on the tradition a person follows. I realize this kind of thing isn’t found in the Eastern Orthodox Communion, which only has the Byzantine tradition, but it’s a good thing to know about the Catholic Communion.
I do wish you well, as I said I was a bit surprised by the tone of your post and am somewhat relieved to hear it was unintentional, and I accept your apology.
I’m glad we can come to peace on this issue. Let’s put it behind us!

Peace and God bless!
 
Bluegoat:
It seems to me that you are taking a very reasonable and widely accepted idea, and trying to make it fit this weird Latin structure.



And to my mind that is the rub - the Catholic understanding of temporal punishment for sins seems to be abstracted in a way that the Orthodox are not willing to allow.
I’ve already said I don’t like the way it’s explained in the Scholastic tradition, so I don’t know what more you’re looking for from me, honestly. 🤷

I’ve simply pointed out that the Scholastic tradition is trying to forensically explain a mystery of Faith using banking terminology, because that’s what the culture of the time and place understood (Christ actually did the same thing for the same reason, incidentally, and it wouldn’t surprise me if that’s the primary reason the Scholastics embraced this language).

The Scholastic explaination came along LONG after these practices and teachings, and only as a way to analogize them for a certain culture and time period. What the “treasury of merit” is referring to is merely the exchange (between Heaven and Earth) of prayers, intentions, and Charitable acts within the Communion of Saints, by the Grace and Power of God. Let’s not get lost in the analogy and forget the fundamental doctrine.

And finally, just for kicks, here’s a quote from the Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of America’s webpage about Saints:
Fifth, they have been granted the special gift to pray and intercede for those still living in this world and fighting the “good fight” for the glory of God and their own perfection in Christ. This intercession springs from the fact that they also are part of the “Communion of Saints”. They share prayers and good works with Christians on earth and there is a constant interaction and unity between the glorified saints in Heaven and Christians who still live in the world.
Peace and God bless!
 
Compare
In the communion of saints, “a perennial link of charity exists between the faithful who have already reached their heavenly home, those who are expiating their sins in purgatory and those who are still pilgrims on earth. between them there is, too, an abundant exchange of all good things.”
… they also are part of the “Communion of Saints”. They share prayers and good works with Christians on earth and there is a constant interaction and unity between the glorified saints in Heaven and Christians who still live in the world.
 
Compare:
In the communion of saints, “a perennial link of charity exists between the faithful who have already reached their heavenly home, those who are expiating their sins in purgatory and those who are still pilgrims on earth. between them there is, too, an abundant exchange of all good things.”
Quote:
… they also are part of the “Communion of Saints”. They share prayers and good works with Christians on earth and there is a constant interaction and unity between the glorified saints in Heaven and Christians who still live in the world.
I don’t have any problem with that part.

But the original point I was responding to was that oikonomia is the same, substantially, as indulgence.

If I understand correctly, we could say oinkonomia in this instance is a matter of God’s grace condescending to help the individual when they cannot go where where the Church would ask them to normally, and to insist would not be helpful to their spiritual life. They are not asked to trade anything. It doesn’t wipe out the need for growing closer to the image of God, or somehow hurry them along like they are in a snakes and ladders board. And they don’t really say anything about where the grace comes from, except from God.

In an indulgence, it is not just a condescension to human weakness. It is like a trade. It is not based upon the need of the individual, but given to anyone who performs a particular set of actions, even if it would be more spiritually beneficial that they not get it. It is not equally open to all though, because some of the actions are only available to people that are able to actually do the required actions. It seems to say that they will be hurried along the road to union with Christ.

So if we have an individual who is asking his priest if he can be allowed not to fast, for example. If we understand this as an indulgence, the priest does not inquire if that is good or necessary for him, but tells him if he reads 10 chapters of the Bible a night, and visits a particular church on a particular date, he can not only not fast - but he will derive the same spiritual benefit as if he had fasted. If the man is in a position to do these things he can get the indulgence, if not, he can’t. (And I believe that there may be a requirement that to get an indulgence one may not be in a state of sin?, which would make it even more different as far as I can see.)

I just cannot see how this is comparable.
 
I don’t have any problem with that part.

But the original point I was responding to was that oikonomia is the same, substantially, as indulgence.

If I understand correctly, we could say oinkonomia in this instance is a matter of God’s grace condescending to help the individual when they cannot go where where the Church would ask them to normally, and to insist would not be helpful to their spiritual life. They are not asked to trade anything. It doesn’t wipe out the need for growing closer to the image of God, or somehow hurry them along like they are in a snakes and ladders board. And they don’t really say anything about where the grace comes from, except from God.

In an indulgence, it is not just a condescension to human weakness. It is like a trade. It is not based upon the need of the individual, but given to anyone who performs a particular set of actions, even if it would be more spiritually beneficial that they not get it. It is not equally open to all though, because some of the actions are only available to people that are able to actually do the required actions. It seems to say that they will be hurried along the road to union with Christ.

So if we have an individual who is asking his priest if he can be allowed not to fast, for example. If we understand this as an indulgence, the priest does not inquire if that is good or necessary for him, but tells him if he reads 10 chapters of the Bible a night, and visits a particular church on a particular date, he can not only not fast - but he will derive the same spiritual benefit as if he had fasted. If the man is in a position to do these things he can get the indulgence, if not, he can’t. (And I believe that there may be a requirement that to get an indulgence one may not be in a state of sin?, which would make it even more different as far as I can see.)

I just cannot see how this is comparable.
 
But the original point I was responding to was that oikonomia is the same, substantially, as indulgence.
From my own understanding of indulgences, I partly agree.
In an indulgence, it is not just a condescension to human weakness. It is like a trade. It is not based upon the need of the individual, but given to anyone who performs a particular set of actions, even if it would be more spiritually beneficial that they not get it.
Two points:
  1. Oikonomia is also applied according to the worthiness of the individual. The priest determines this after careful examination of the person.
  2. The whole concept of indulgences is based on the needs of an individual. I’m not sure what makes you think it is not.
It is not equally open to all though, because some of the actions are only available to people that are able to actually do the required actions.
Not true. Indulgences are open to all. The indulgence one gets for a certain action is the very same indulgence that one gets for another type of action. If one cannot perform one action, then they can perform another action. Just think of indulgences as Grace pure and simple. Perhaps that will make it easier for you to understand (and possibly accept).
It seems to say that they will be hurried along the road to union with Christ.
I wouldn’t mind that at all. But I think you are misunderstanding something about the Latin concept of indulgences. In the Latin teaching, any indulgence (Grace) one obtains for an action is applied to one’s own spiritual needs first and foremost. You can’t “give away” an indulgence that you need yourself. I personally can’t think of a circumstance where an indulgence would be used for anyone here on earth because every person is responsible for the “working out of their own salvation” (I’m not saying that indulgences have anything to do with salvation - I’m just using that verse conveniently to make a point). Practically speaking, I think indulgences are really only for those in the afterlife, for those who really have no means of increasing their Grace by their own actions.
So if we have an individual who is asking his priest if he can be allowed not to fast, for example. If we understand this as an indulgence, the priest does not inquire if that is good or necessary for him, but tells him if he reads 10 chapters of the Bible a night, and visits a particular church on a particular date, he can not only not fast - but he will derive the same spiritual benefit as if he had fasted. If the man is in a position to do these things he can get the indulgence, if not, he can’t.
Are you serious? I really can’t imagine a confessor in the Latin Church who would not discuss the matter thoroughly with the individual before granting such indulgences. I seriously cannot imagine a priest telling the individual, “Let’s go with the easiest way, instead of the most spiritually beneficial way.”🤷
(And I believe that there may be a requirement that to get an indulgence one may not be in a state of sin?, which would make it even more different as far as I can see.)
Well, “state of sin” is a Latin concept and is not really applicable I guess. But the priest does have to examine a person before granting oikonomia to make sure he or she is worthy. Those are probably comparable concepts, n’est pas?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
From my own understanding of indulgences, I partly agree.

Two points:
  1. Oikonomia is also applied according to the worthiness of the individual. The priest determines this after careful examination of the person.
  2. The whole concept of indulgences is based on the needs of an individual. I’m not sure what makes you think it is not.
Not true. Indulgences are open to all. The indulgence one gets for a certain action is the very same indulgence that one gets for another type of action. If one cannot perform one action, then they can perform another action. Just think of indulgences as Grace pure and simple. Perhaps that will make it easier for you to understand (and possibly accept).

I wouldn’t mind that at all. But I think you are misunderstanding something about the Latin concept of indulgences. In the Latin teaching, any indulgence (Grace) one obtains for an action is applied to one’s own spiritual needs first and foremost. You can’t “give away” an indulgence that you need yourself. I personally can’t think of a circumstance where an indulgence would be used for anyone here on earth because every person is responsible for the “working out of their own salvation” (I’m not saying that indulgences have anything to do with salvation - I’m just using that verse conveniently to make a point). Practically speaking, I think indulgences are really only for those in the afterlife, for those who really have no means of increasing their Grace by their own actions.

Are you serious? I really can’t imagine a confessor in the Latin Church who would not discuss the matter thoroughly with the individual before granting such indulgences. I seriously cannot imagine a priest telling the individual, “Let’s go with the easiest way, instead of the most spiritually beneficial way.”🤷

Well, “state of sin” is a Latin concept and is not really applicable I guess. But the priest does have to examine a person before granting oikonomia to make sure he or she is worthy. Those are probably comparable concepts, n’est pas?

Blessings,
Marduk
It seems to me that your understanding of how an indulgence actually works - how you obtain it - in the Latin Church is quite different from mine. It is not my understanding that you go to your priest to get one, or that they are only given as a matter of need. Rather you fulfill the requirements on the list and you have your indulgence.
 
It seems to me that your understanding of how an indulgence actually works - how you obtain it - in the Latin Church is quite different from mine. It is not my understanding that you go to your priest to get one, or that they are only given as a matter of need. Rather you fulfill the requirements on the list and you have your indulgence.
On THAT point, I was only responding to your scenario of a Latin priest telling a person to do this act for an indulgence instead of that act. You made it seem like a priest would be advising a person to do something of least spiritual benefit, which is unrealistic.

Blessings
 
On THAT point, I was only responding to your scenario of a Latin priest telling a person to do this act for an indulgence instead of that act. You made it seem like a priest would be advising a person to do something of least spiritual benefit, which is unrealistic.

Blessings
No, my point was obviously ineptly put. I was trying to show how ridiculous such a scenario would be - no priest would say that. But to make an indulgence equivalent to oikonomia, that is what you are suggesting - that the Church is giving oikonomia on those terms.

In the East, a person looking for some sort of dispensation would be going to a priest. It would be given, or not, according to that persons real needs and spiritual benefit. He would not be “trading” the requirement for some other work that is meant to replace it. He would not be promised the same spiritual benefit as if he had done whatever the thing was he is being excused from.

In an indulgence, there is no priest. The person simply trades the required works for the assigned benefit, whether there is a real need or not, or whether it would be spiritually good for him or not. He is also told that he gets the same spiritual benefit from the indulgence as he would have for the penance - he still is drawing to God in the same way he would be.
 
In an indulgence, there is no priest.
Not always, no. But I know several who regularly discuss the matter with their priest/confessor and are guided in the spiritual use of indulgences.
The person simply trades the required works for the assigned benefit, whether there is a real need or not,
Really? That’s strange. How can there not be a need? Please explain.
or whether it would be spiritually good for him or not.
How is Grace ever not spiritually good? That’s what indulgences basically are.
He is also told that he gets the same spiritual benefit from the indulgence as he would have for the penance - he still is drawing to God in the same way he would be.
I don’t get it (not indulgences, but what you are trying to say). Are you saying that the teaching of indulgences states one can remit one’s temporal punishment here on earth by sitting on the laurels of indulgences gained by others? Are you saying that one can do extra penances half of one’s life and then relax the rest of your life knowing that you can use previous indulgences to get out of the temporal punishment for future sins? If so, you have sorely misunderstood the Latin teaching.

The Grace of an indulgence is not proactive - it is retroactive. It can only remit any temporal punishment due to sins from your past. Any “extra” goes into the Treasury of Merit and it is only for God to decide to whom that Grace will be applied.

If you sin in the future, indulgences received prior to that time of sinning ain’t gonna help ya. You will still need to do penance and renew yourself spiritually in other ways.

As far as thinking you can rest on the laurels of indulgences gained by other people so you will not need to do any penance, you need to know that indulgences are extra-Sacramental. If you sin, you will STILL need to confess, be absolved and do penance before you can even gain any benefit from indulgences.

I’m not saying I agree with this system, but I do disagree with your misrepresentations of it.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Oh, please. The teaching has changed in the last century, but ask the older Roman Catholics and they can remember the charts in their Confraternity Bibles about how many minutes of scripture readings would get you so many years out of purgatory. Everything was calculated and graphed, and certain deeds rendered certain amounts of “time” in purgatory indulged.
Indeed, my studies of this topic historically are quite specific about the time frames, etc. I find this an anthropomorphic projection, since the afterlife exists outside the space time continuum. Since there is not “time” in heaven or Purgatory, how can one spend less “minutes”? To me, it seems like a primitive understanding and perception of eternal truths, much like people thought at one time that the earth was the center of the universe.
This is foreign to Holy Orthodoxy, not Roman Catholicism.
Does not Holy Orthodoxy also recognize and affirm the temporal and eternal benefits of such pious acts as those described?
 
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