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Nine_Two
Guest
Fair enough. Then going back to your question which brought me to take up this digression,Read your post #7 and your quotation of the post you were responding to- the quotes are there and you responded to them already. It was this #7 that I replied to at first.
Assuming those are accurate quotes of the fathers, being repeated in proper context (which is an issue that has been brought up, but we will leave it for now), then we are left with the fact that even the Fathers of the Church are fallible men.I fail to see how this could have caused the fathers to presume that no errors could come from Rome? Those wise fathers?- They thought that good behavior of past Bishops (as if only Rome had demonstrated that?) alone could guarantee that no error could ever issue, even from different occupants of the see? I’ve never seen evidence of such a presumption issue from any institution, secular or religious, unless it was presumed infallible/guaranteed from error by Divinity, like the Muslim belief that their Qur’an or Prophet could not err
The Tradition of the Church and the accepted teachings of the fathers is established through consensus. One, two, three, even ten fathers saying one thing doesn’t make it true. A number of fathers spoke of apocotostasis, and yet this is not a teaching you find in the Catholic Church today and it is quite unpopular in the Orthodox Church as well.