R
Rohzek
Guest
Actually that is hardly believed by any Late Antique or Medieval historians. The papacy actually remained very weak in the early eighth century. And it didn’t really project itself outside the newly formed papal states in terms of jurisdictional authority until Pope Nicholas I. Most historians follow the model that Leo I proclaimed an idea of papal supreme jurisdiction, and that it did not reach its full fulfillment until the Gregorian Reform. This model was originally proposed by Johannes Haller in Das Papsttum: Idea und Wirklichkeit. Haller was indeed a Protestant, but his model has even been adopted by Catholic historians in their own works, such as those by Walter Ullmann. Going over all the historiography and the consensus of professional historians is too long for these forums, but I recommend you read the following article despite it being 20 years old now: Noble, Thomas F. X. “Morbidity and Vitality in the History of the Early Medieval Papacy.” The Catholic Historical Review 81, no. 4 (Oct. 1995), 505-540.With reference to my post #123,
The shallowness and naiveté exists with those who do not know or deny the mandate of Christ in installing His Supreme Vicar, St Peter. The universal jurisdiction existed from the beginning – from Christ (post #123).
And yet, what is completely lacking is any cultural context for interpreting these rulings and examples of papal actions. Do you honestly think Orthodox ignore these? Nope. In order to interpret said events, you must also take into account the cultural context that surrounds these events. Orthodox largely interpret this as Clement speaking with moral authority from the Holy Spirit. It does nothing to explicitly point out supreme jurisdiction by virtue of his office. Keep in mind that it is from the same attitude and spirit that Pope Honorius I was deposed for heresy.Note that the early Church always accepted the Bishop of Rome as head of the Church. In about 80 A.D., the Church at Corinth deposed its lawful leaders. The fourth bishop of Rome, Pope Clement I, was called to settle the matter even though St. John the Apostle was still alive and much closer to Corinth than was Rome. Tradition shows Pope St Clement exercising his primacy in about 96, on a matter of schism in the Church of Corinth. Of the same generation as Saints Peter and Paul and when St John the Apostle was probably still living in Ephesus, Pope Clement wrote as one commanding to the Church of Corinth in Greece: “If any disobey what He (Christ) says through us, let them know that they will be involved in no small offence and danger, but we shall be innocent of this sin.” (I Clem. ad Cor. 59,1) This Is The Faith, Francis J Ripley, Fowler Wright Books, 1971, p 151; 139-141].
Again, understand the cultural context. They only regarded Leo’s tome as orthodox after it had been read. Their claim does not acknowledge that Leo is the supreme head. It merely acknowledges the fact that Leo was speaking orthodox faith, as though he were Peter himself. Therefore, anyone who denied orthodox faith would be in heresy.The fidelity shown at the Council of Chalcedon was later discarded:
“After the reading of the foregoing epistle [The Tome of Leo], the most reverend bishops cried out: ‘This is the faith of the fathers! This is the faith of the apostles! So we all believe! Thus the Orthodox believe! Anathema to him who does not thus believe! Peter has spoken thus through Leo! . . . This is the true faith! Those of us who are Orthodox thus believe! This is the faith of the Fathers!’” (Acts of the Council, session 2 [A.D. 451]).
See: The Papacy
What did the Early Church Fathers Say?
americancatholictruthsociety.com/docs/ecfpapacy.htm
The supreme and universal jurisdiction which originated with Christ is thus acknowledged and accepted until the fateful schism which has resulted in the false teaching and errors below.
You have a rather poor historical understanding about the development of the ideas of marriage and divorce within the early church in East and West. The divergence is not a consequence over the separation from Rome. I suggest you read the following, as it talks specifically about the issue: Gallagher, Clarence. “Diversity in Unity: Approaches to Church Order in Rome and Byzantium.” Ecclesiastical Law Journal: The Journal of the Ecclesiastical Law Society 6, no. 30 (2002): 208-238.While the Orthodox to their credit have validly ordained priests and bishops, the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass and the seven sacraments, they have fallen into false beliefs and practices in that they explicitly have the grave errors of permitting divorce and remarriage, allowing contraception, denying the reality of the infallibility of the Pope and His supremacy, and rejecting the dogma of the Immaculate Conception.
I will not discuss contraception here.
I talked about the third one above to some degree already.
How can you possibly expect the Orthodox Church to have a formal position on the Immaculate Conception? It’s true, most Orthodox theologians reject it. However, the immaculate conception was not even conceived of as an idea until the 12th or 13th century. While the Catholic Church has continued to have ecumenical councils and the expediency of papal decrees, the Orthodox Church has no luxery of the latter and has not had an ecumenical council since before 1000 AD. How can you possibly expect them then to formally proclaim a dogma that did not exist in the form of a mere idea at the time of its last gathering?