J
JackD13
Guest
Hello all,
I’ve just recently gotten back into my faith, and being on the starting end of things I want to make sure I have an accurate scriptural, doctrinal, and philosophical perspective on the difficult matters regarding Catholicism.
Throughout this search of difficult matters I have arrived at the common argument regarding the comparison of the Old Testament God to the New Testament God (albeit that these are indeed the same God) that lies along the lines of: How could such a vengeful and wrathful God flip over to one of replete forgiveness and mercy?
While I understand that truthfully there are comparative measures of wrath and mercy in each of the Testaments, I do find some difficulty in understanding why indeed the manner of teaching is so drastically different.
Along those lines of faith being merely founded on the Old Testament:
Why does Jesus denounce such teachings as he does in Mark 5:38-39 (“You have heard that it was said, ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth.’ But I say to you, offer no resistance to one who is evil. When someone strikes you on your right cheek, turn the other one to him as well.”) but reference and uphold others such as in Matthew 12:7 referring to Hosea 6:6 “If you had known what these words mean, ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice,’ you would not have condemned the innocent.”
While I am sure there is doctrinal and philosophical logic behind these actions, I nevertheless find the manner of teaching seemingly contradictory and confusing.
Thanks so much!
I’ve just recently gotten back into my faith, and being on the starting end of things I want to make sure I have an accurate scriptural, doctrinal, and philosophical perspective on the difficult matters regarding Catholicism.
Throughout this search of difficult matters I have arrived at the common argument regarding the comparison of the Old Testament God to the New Testament God (albeit that these are indeed the same God) that lies along the lines of: How could such a vengeful and wrathful God flip over to one of replete forgiveness and mercy?
While I understand that truthfully there are comparative measures of wrath and mercy in each of the Testaments, I do find some difficulty in understanding why indeed the manner of teaching is so drastically different.
Along those lines of faith being merely founded on the Old Testament:
Why does Jesus denounce such teachings as he does in Mark 5:38-39 (“You have heard that it was said, ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth.’ But I say to you, offer no resistance to one who is evil. When someone strikes you on your right cheek, turn the other one to him as well.”) but reference and uphold others such as in Matthew 12:7 referring to Hosea 6:6 “If you had known what these words mean, ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice,’ you would not have condemned the innocent.”
While I am sure there is doctrinal and philosophical logic behind these actions, I nevertheless find the manner of teaching seemingly contradictory and confusing.
Thanks so much!