Other scriptural problems

[Ilovejesus1234]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

1. “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; yet, not as I will, but as you will.” was said in Matthew 26. He did this two times after, you can look at the whole verse if you want. But anyway, was he thinking about himself right here? The Church always says don’t be self centered, be self-denying, don’t be selfish, don’t think of yourself, always think of others. Was he sinning? The bible tells us he was sinless and tempted in every way but didn’t sin. Since this type of sin is venial in nature, did he sin by thinking about himself slightly, how did he not sin, I am confused by this.

That and he said “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” from Matthew 27. Was he doubting, whether it was involuntary doubt or voluntary doubt…I am wondering, whether or not he did doubt? Seeing as how it seemed as he did, and doubt i think is sinful as well.

3.Also how well did Jesus follow the law, it seems like he followed it well, but I am wondering how well? How did he not break it, he seemed to do things contrary to it out of mercy, but I am not sure that constitutes as breaking the law.

I am going through time of doubt, but still I hold on to God and Jesus no matter what. All I need is help, I will try to get to these soon, when God lets me but for now I beg you, please help me…

 

[Nelka]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

1. “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; yet, not as I will, but as you will.” was said in Matthew 26. He did this two times after, you can look at the whole verse if you want. But anyway, was he thinking about himself right here? The Church always says don’t be self centered, be self-denying, don’t be selfish, don’t think of yourself, always think of others. Was he sinning? The bible tells us he was sinless and tempted in every way but didn’t sin. Since this type of sin is venial in nature, did he sin by thinking about himself slightly, how did he not sin, I am confused by this.

That and he said “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” from Matthew 27. Was he doubting, whether it was involuntary doubt or voluntary doubt…I am wondering, whether or not he did doubt? Seeing as how it seemed as he did, and doubt i think is sinful as well.

3.Also how well did Jesus follow the law, it seems like he followed it well, but I am wondering how well? How did he not break it, he seemed to do things contrary to it out of mercy, but I am not sure that constitutes as breaking the law.

I am going through time of doubt, but still I hold on to God and Jesus no matter what. All I need is help, I will try to get to these soon, when God lets me but for now I beg you, please help me…

1. I know the answer but cannot explain it well enough so somebody else will.

1. Jesus wasn’t sinning.

The reason Jesus said “My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?” was to fulfil scripture, if you read Psalm 22 which is about Jesus that is the first verse.

1. Jesus kept the law, even when He didn’t need to pay the tax because of who He was He paid it so He would not be the downfall of anybody.

Matthew 17:24 When they reached Capernaum, the collectors of the half-shekel came to Peter and said, ‘Does your master not pay the half-shekel?’

25 ‘Yes,’ he replied, and went into the house. But before he could speak, Jesus said, ‘Simon, what is your opinion? From whom do earthly kings take toll or tribute? From their sons or from foreigners?’

26 And when he replied, ‘From foreigners,’ Jesus said, 'Well then, the sons are exempt.

27 However, so that we shall not be the downfall of others, go to the lake and cast a hook; take the first fish that rises, open its mouth and there you will find a shekel; take it and give it to them for me and for yourself.’

 

[Nelka]

Psalm 22 - Some verses for you.

1 [For the choirmaster To ‘the Doe of the Dawn’ Psalm Of David] My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? The words of my groaning do nothing to save me.

---

13 Lions ravening and roaring open their jaws at me.

14 My strength is trickling away, my bones are all disjointed, my heart has turned to wax, melting inside me.

15 My mouth is dry as earthenware, my tongue sticks to my jaw. You lay me down in the dust of death.

16 A pack of dogs surrounds me, a gang of villains closing in on me as if to hack off my hands and my feet.

17 I can count every one of my bones, while they look on and gloat;

18 they divide my garments among them and cast lots for my clothing.

---

29 All who prosper on earth will bow before him, all who go down to the dust will do reverence before him. And those who are dead,

30 their descendants will serve him, will proclaim his name to generations

31 still to come; and these will tell of his saving justice to a people yet unborn: he has fulfilled it.

 

[Bballer32]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

1. “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; yet, not as I will, but as you will.” was said in Matthew 26. He did this two times after, you can look at the whole verse if you want. But anyway, was he thinking about himself right here? The Church always says don’t be self centered, be self-denying, don’t be selfish, don’t think of yourself, always think of others. Was he sinning? The bible tells us he was sinless and tempted in every way but didn’t sin. Since this type of sin is venial in nature, did he sin by thinking about himself slightly, how did he not sin, I am confused by this.

That and he said “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” from Matthew 27. Was he doubting, whether it was involuntary doubt or voluntary doubt…I am wondering, whether or not he did doubt? Seeing as how it seemed as he did, and doubt he’s i think is sinful as well.

3.Also how well did Jesus follow the law, it seems like he followed it well, but I am wondering how well? How did he not break it, he seemed to do things contrary to it out of mercy, but I am not sure that constitutes as breaking the law.

I am going through time of doubt, but still I hold on to God and Jesus no matter what. All I need is help, I will try to get to these soon, when God lets me but for now I beg you, please help me…

1. If St. Paul is referring to humans as “all” then their are some problems. We believe that Jesus Christ was fully God and fully Man. That means, according to the logic that you suggest this verse is following, Jesus, who is fully Human, has also sinned. But that’s absurd and everyone would deny that. So, by Paul saying “all have sinned” he’s referring more to the general race and not necessarily Jesus or even possibly Mary.
2. Christ’s human-ness was being human, but he was not doubting. By saying “let this cup pas from me”, he’s not doubting but rather asking God to remove this suffering, which eventually he accepts the cup (a.k.a. the Father’s will).
3. He was a devout Jew. However, Jesus is subject to the Law, but at the same time, since he is God, he can be above the Law also, especially when it comes to dealing with the preparation for the New Covenant. Also, Christ really never breaks the Law because he counters all the Pharisees with Scripture passages. One could say, if they were a Jew, that the only Law Jesus Christ broke was “blasphemy”. But again we believe that he was telling the Truth the whole time.

God Bless,
Bballer32

 

[RedFox0456]

1. Going to agree that Paul would have been speaking generally and not specifically, but I haven’t looked into this much.
2. Jesus was fully human and subject to pain and agony. In the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus was put through incredible spiritual suffering - to the point of sweating blood. He also knew what was coming. He humbly asked the Father to allow the cup to pass, but he also humbly accepted it if it was the only way to save us.

Regarding whether or not Jesus was doubting on the cross, He absolutely was not. I’ve actually heard this used to say Jesus was not God because He appeared confused/concerned for Himself. In all actuality, as was pointed out before, He is speaking the beginning of Psalm 22, which if you read is incredible. It’s like the entire crucifixion sequence laid out in the Old Testament. Keep in mind, Jesus was in incredible pain and would have been having a difficult time simply breathing because of the position the cross would have put Him in. But to those who knew Scripture, that one line told the whole story.

1. I don’t agree with other comments that Jesus was above the Law by virtue of being God. Rather, I would point out that the laws of the Old Covenant were not perfect. As Jesus said, Moses had given at least one imperfect law because of the hardness of the hearts of the Israelites. So it’s not that Jesus was being a bad Jew. He was actually being a great Jew because He was following the Law of the Spirit, which was perfect, versus the imperfect law of the time.

 

[SJacob7]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

1. “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; yet, not as I will, but as you will.” was said in Matthew 26. He did this two times after, you can look at the whole verse if you want. But anyway, was he thinking about himself right here? The Church always says don’t be self centered, be self-denying, don’t be selfish, don’t think of yourself, always think of others. Was he sinning? The bible tells us he was sinless and tempted in every way but didn’t sin. Since this type of sin is venial in nature, did he sin by thinking about himself slightly, how did he not sin, I am confused by this.

That and he said “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” from Matthew 27. Was he doubting, whether it was involuntary doubt or voluntary doubt…I am wondering, whether or not he did doubt? Seeing as how it seemed as he did, and doubt i think is sinful as well.

3.Also how well did Jesus follow the law, it seems like he followed it well, but I am wondering how well? How did he not break it, he seemed to do things contrary to it out of mercy, but I am not sure that constitutes as breaking the law.

I am going through time of doubt, but still I hold on to God and Jesus no matter what. All I need is help, I will try to get to these soon, when God lets me but for now I beg you, please help me…

Just a comment on your 3rd question. Jesus followed the law perfectly. He had to, because he had to be ‘the perfect sacrifice’. He had to be without blemish in order to be the sacrifice for our sins. The things he DID do which the Jewish leaders opposed to was that on many times he broke their traditions. This they had a problem with. He broke the traditions established by men, but did not break the law which was established by God.

 

[Gorgias]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

No. Take a look at the context. Paul is comparing ‘Jews’ and ‘Gentiles’. His analysis here is that salvation doesn’t come to Jews in one way and Gentiles in another way. Rather, sin is sin; each group has sinned; each group requires justification through faith in Jesus.

Tell me – have babies who died at birth sinned? Have babies who were aborted sinned? If not, then we already have plenty of examples where Paul is contradicted, if we think he means “each individual human being has sinned”…

1. “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; yet, not as I will, but as you will.” was said in Matthew 26. He did this two times after, you can look at the whole verse if you want. But anyway, was he thinking about himself right here? The Church always says don’t be self centered, be self-denying, don’t be selfish, don’t think of yourself, always think of others. Was he sinning? The bible tells us he was sinless and tempted in every way but didn’t sin. Since this type of sin is venial in nature, did he sin by thinking about himself slightly, how did he not sin, I am confused by this.

No, this isn’t sinful. It would be a mischaracterization, I think, to say that we’re being taught “be completely and totally selfless” – after all, wouldn’t that mean that we should be naked (since we should give all our clothes to the poor), starving (since we should give all our food to the hungry), and destitute (since we shouldn’t keep any means for our support, but give it all up)? Of course not. So, there’s a certain level at which we look to our own needs.

Jesus is simply cognizant of the fact that His passion is going to hurt. A lot. He’s asking God whether it’s necessary to go through this pain; but He accepts that, if it’s God’s will, He’ll do it. That’s all.

That and he said “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” from Matthew 27. Was he doubting, whether it was involuntary doubt or voluntary doubt…I am wondering, whether or not he did doubt? Seeing as how it seemed as he did, and doubt i think is sinful as well.

He was quoting the opening line of Psalm 22. Please read that psalm in its entirety, and see whether this is a psalm about doubt, or whether it’s a psalm about trust in God and God’s victory over His enemies.

3.Also how well did Jesus follow the law, it seems like he followed it well, but I am wondering how well? How did he not break it, he seemed to do things contrary to it out of mercy, but I am not sure that constitutes as breaking the law.

Not quite sure how to answer you, unless you provide example(s) of ways that you think Jesus might have broken the law. In any case, Jesus asserts that he came to fulfill the Law.

 

[Mintaka]

Re: Question 3 –

The Jewish Law was pretty complicated, yet it also came with a lot of exceptions to help people follow it.

But in Jesus’ time, many of the complicated bits that were meant only for priests, or only for certain situations, were being taught as applying to every single Jew all the time. Also, many of the Pharisees were teaching that it was necessary to “put a fence around the Law,” which is avoiding breaking the Law by going to great lengths not to be anywhere near breaking it. This put an undue burden on the poor and on ordinary people.

On the other hand, guys like the Sadducees taught a very relaxed form of the Law, which was useful for them and their cronies.

Meanwhile, other important parts of the Law, like the Jubilee that freed slaves and restored land ownership to the original tribal owners, were not being done at all by anyone.

So Jesus didn’t break the Law. He took advantage of exceptions that had been in the Law since the beginning, and He refused to go with the fence version of things, and He taught the meaning of the Law.

Then, after His Resurrection, He taught the Apostles and disciples that He was now promulgating a new version of the Law, just as God had done several times in Israel’s history. Usually it had been added restrictions given as a punishment. In this case, it was loosening things up as part of His new Covenant in His Blood. This was His right, because He was God and God is the real Lawgiver. (This was also the bit where He acted as the New Moses.) This new Law was the fulfillment of the Law.

But He never broke the Law, and the Law was not destroyed. Jews who have not chosen yet to become Christian are still under the old Law, while those who have chosen the New Covenant are bound by the new Law. But most of the moral laws for and against behavior are the same between old and new, though the form of the legislation may differ.

 

[Ignatius]

1. Romans 3: For there is no distinction; all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.

Does this mean Mary sinned too?(Note that I still accept the doctrine due to tradition). having trouble on this, hope somebody can help.

Does it mean that the Holy Innocents sinned too? Does it mean that newborn babes have sinned too? Does it mean that Jesus sinned too?

What, you mean there are exceptions!

You know, these are not new questions. If you use the search link next to the Home button above, you will find that there are 100’s of threads on these questions. Why read up first, maybe your answer is in one of the 1000 other threads on the subject.