Our Father....For thine is the kingdom

[isaiah_m]

As a child I learned the Our Father without Thine is the kingdom etc. As a teen, I first ran across this difference. I always considered it a Protestant addition to the Our Father.

The Navarre Bible in Mt 6:9-13 gives the Our Father without the phrase “For thine is the kingdom, power, and glory now and forever”. Lk 11:2-4 doesn’t include the phrase either.

In the KJV, Lk 11:2-4 agrees with the Navarre and doesn’t have this phrase. However the KJV inserts it in Mt 6:9…

Where did the phrase originate? Why was it included in the Sacred Liturgy revisions after Vatican II?

 

[bmullins]

The doxology of the prayer is not contained in Luke’s version, nor is it present in the earliest manuscripts of Matthew, representative of the Alexandrian text, but is present in the manuscripts representative of the Byzantine text. It is thus absent in the oldest and best manuscripts of Matthew, and most scholars do not consider it part of the original text of Matthew. Modern translations generally omit it.

I had never really wondered myself. I had always assumed that we had the separate prayer ‘glory be’ to cover the rest.

 

[Rhuarc]

I always add the addition on whether people say it or not. I like it because it adds a little more to it l sort of like an extra umff.

 

[runningdude]

The phrase “for the kingdom, power and glory our yours…” is a smal doxology recited to conclude the Lord’s prayer. It dates from ancient times, possibly influence by the book of Chronicles, and first found, in part, in the Didache, an early compilation of Christian teachings.

Its generally not considered part of the “Our Father” proper, but it was added as a footnote to copies of scripture by the scribes, and has been inadvertently incorporated into the text over the years.

More information: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord%27s_Prayer#.22For_thine_is_the_kingdom.2C_and_the_power.2C_and_the_glory.2C_for_ever_and_ever._Amen.22

 

[JM3]

ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/DOXOLOG.HTM

 

[isaiah_m]

I am very happy to have the answer to my first question. Does anyone have an answer to the second question as to why the doxology was added to Sacred Scripture for the Mass after Vatican II?

Sorry to have waited so long, but thought someone might have been doing some research before answering.

 

[runningdude]

I am very happy to have the answer to my first question. Does anyone have an answer to the second question as to why the doxology was added to Sacred Scripture for the Mass after Vatican II?

Sorry to have waited so long, but thought someone might have been doing some research before answering.

It was never added to sacred scripture following Vatican II, at least not in one of the official Catholic translations of scripture. The NAB for example, usccb.org/bible/matthew/6/, ends at the line “deliver us from the evil one”.

If you were asking why the doxology was included in the mass following the Lord’s Prayer, then I’d image it was first and foremost considered a valuable prayer of historical significance. Including it doesn’t modify the Our Father proper, but is said as an additional prayer of affirmation.