Not to be argumentative, but if the bishop or cardinal grant dispensations within his authority, then is it fair to say they’re allowing abuses? If he legitimately allows them, then they couldn’t fairly be called abuses, now could they?
Not to be argumentative, but if the bishop or cardinal grant dispensations within his authority, then is it fair to say they’re allowing abuses? If he legitimately allows them, then they couldn’t fairly be called abuses, now could they?
Sure the abuse is more against the process and authority of dispensation than the Sacrament of Marriage. The authority to dispense from certain Canon Law requirements was granted to Bishops so that they could allow certain actions when there was a real pastoral necessity. But many simply make it routine practice for anyone who asks ignoring the pastoral requirements.
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