Papal Heresy and the Infallible Faith of Peter and His Successors

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Yet many of the Catholic Churches 20 some councils do not have sufficient representation because the East was not present yet they are considered “ecumenical”?
Fact Pope chose not to call it Ecumenical for this reason does not mean it is an objective criterion for it- he subjectively of his own accord chose it for this reason. Fact word “ecumenical” was closely tied to Emperor could also mean that he wanted Emperor to accept it (not necessarily needed but helpful for sure).
 
Yet many of the Catholic Churches 20 some councils do not have sufficient representation because the East was not present yet they are considered “ecumenical”?
ZP
They were sufficient. Approbation doesn’t require the attendance of excommunicated Churches. In any case, from 1453 - 1923, Sultans deposed/appointed 105 of the 159 Patriarchs of Constantinople, so I don’t see how they were necessary for a proper council.
 
Yet many of the Catholic Churches 20 some councils do not have sufficient representation because the East was not present yet they are considered “ecumenical”
Those Eastern Churches in communion with Rome were represented. The Latin/Byzantine Church continued to hold ecumenical councils after the Chalcedonian schism. I think the Church has always recognized that binding councils can still be held without representation from those churches not currently in full communion…even if still valid, true churches.

Also…for what its worth, its my understanding that some of the original 7 ecumenical councils had virtually no Western representation, yet were eventually ratified by the Pope and accepted by the West.
 
I would point out that Cardinal Manning favored a much broader version of papal infallibility at the First Vatican Council so he would likely have a broader interpretation of the wording of the decree than some others.
 
Yes and we do still have appearances of Jesus and Mary providing us with messages.
Yes but no messages speaking out against the Pope or the clergy. Among the criteria the Church uses to determine if a private revelation is genuine or not is if the message speaks out against the Pope or the clergy. If it does then such a private revelation is deemed to be false.
 
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I added a little * by Honorius. But you can see for yourselves the steadfastness of Rome
 
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But the Holy Spirit still guides the Roman Pontiff in his non-infallible teaching, so I find it hard to see how the Pope could teach the Church heresy or theological error in his non-infallible teachings.
The Holy Spirit Guides - yet does not force anyone’s ‘hand’…

Although YES – There are those in the Hierarchy - who are more than just suggesting Heresy,
I’ve not said that the pope has committed heresy - or not.

What I have asked is if the pope in connected in any manner with heresy.

What this intends is to open the door to considerations of that question ’
in connection with any advisors of and/or persons known by - the pope
 
Can a pope say or do anything which does not fall into the category of “infallible”?
Almost everything he says or does is fallible.

Hopefully he’s right most of the time, but papal infallibility is a very narrow doctrine and an application of the infallibility of the church, and rarely applies.

(of course, there are posts on this forum who ignore the actual doctrine and would all but have his pizza order be an infallible statement . . .)
A Pope can only be removed by death or resignation.
heresy would fall into the second category . . .
I guess the question is this, can a Pope overrule what a council has decreed?
Early church practice seems to have required ratification of a purportedly ecumenical council by the Bishop Rome . . .
 
Almost everything he says or does is fallible.

Hopefully he’s right most of the time, but papal infallibility is a very narrow doctrine and an application of the infallibility of the church, and rarely applies.
And therein connects with the rash of Questionings and Concerns connected with Francis?
 
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