Papal Infallibility characteristics

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what characteristics must be met in order for a Pope to declare some teaching/pronouncement infallible?
 
i unfortunately didn’t find clear characteristics about when/how a Pope speaks infallibly. The document seems to defend it more, rather than tell me what the characteristics are.

Thanks though 🙂
 
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From Wikipedia:

According to the teaching of the First Vatican Council and Catholic tradition, the conditions required for ex cathedra papal teaching are as follows:

The Roman Pontiff speaks ex cathedra, that is, when, (in the discharge of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, and by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority,) he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church. For a teaching by a pope or ecumenical council to be recognized as infallible, the teaching must:

Be a decision of the supreme teaching authority of the Church (the Pope alone or with the College of Bishops)
Concern a doctrine of faith or morals
Bind the universal Church
Be proposed as something to hold firmly and immutably

The terminology of a definitive decree usually makes clear that this last condition is fulfilled, as through a formula such as “By the authority of Our Lord Jesus Christ and of the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul, and by Our own authority, We declare, pronounce and define the doctrine . . . to be revealed by God and as such to be firmly and immutably held by all the faithful,” or through an accompanying anathema stating that anyone who deliberately dissents is outside the Catholic Church.
 
what characteristics must be met in order for a Pope to declare some teaching/pronouncement infallible?
Briefly stated, a Pope can declare a teaching on faith and morals (only) as infallible if it enjoys the consensus of all the Bishops in union with him and does not violate Scripture or Tradition as taught and protected by the Magisterium of the Catholic Church.

The Pope cannot act alone, or even with a majority of other Bishops, when it comes to infallible teachings. There must be consensus. And established doctrine cannot be changed, only “developed.”
Practices, otoh, (like priestly celibacy) can be changed.
 
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And how do we know whoever defined those characteriztics was speaking infallibly 😮
 
By virtue of his office as chief pastor of the universal church, he makes a definitive declaration binding on the whole Church on a proposition necessarily tied to faith or morals.

Think of it this way. the whole Church cannot fall into error. The Pope, as chief teacher, can give the final, definitive say for the whole Church as to whether a proposition is or is not error. Therefore, when the Pope makes such a decision for the whole Church, he cannot fall into error (otherwise the whole Church would).
 
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Think of it this way. the whole Church cannot fall into error.
That is a mere assertion.
How do we know it is infallibly true?

Every Church or major religion believes it is the one true religion and doesn’t fall into error…but only the Catholic Church goes this step further and turns it into a specific infallibility charism…but based on what exactly?
Other religions don’t have a corresponding infallibility clause.
 
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