Essentially the claim is that its an example of a pope claiming the holy spirit speaks through him. Its viewed that way by Denzinger to name one prominent example.
I’ve heard of the idea that all bishops share St Peters chair, that view is however not accepted by The Catholic Church. I should also add that the wording and the claims made by popes since the early church tend to exclude this view.
Explicit claims to papal primacy occur from the mid fourth century onwards and as I said were supported by councils, so it was hardly a contentious issue. Whilst I admit the most explicit claims occur from the 10th century onwards, the claims were first made much much earlier.
As for St Popes I believe Ghosty has backed up that claim, but when I get home (I’m at uni at the moment) I’ll have a look to see if I can find anymore relevant documents from Denzinger.
Thank you. Obviously the Catholic Church would not support the view of a communal sharing of St. Peter’s chair (that would contradict its position, right?).
Please note the word used: primacy. The councils supported Papal primacy due to a number of factors, such as the honor of being the resting place of St. Peter, being very orthodox against many heresies, and being the patriarch of the whole of Western Europe. It CAN BE read, especially if one is tinted towards such a reading, that these councils and that all the Churches agreed on Papal Supremacy. However, as I have stated before, the history is muddy; I believe Cavaradossi, for example, challenged the assumption of interpretation of the St. Leo documents based upon tone: such an analysis frequently reveals quite a bit about the intentions of the writer (I am not saying he is right or wrong, but that he made the argument).
My point is this: the Orthodox tend to read Papal Primacy and Papal Supremacy as separate; texts supporting Papal Primacy tend to be read in the Catholic West as supporting Papal Supremacy. The Pope today claims both Primacy and Supremacy, if one follows the Orthodox definitions. Without Supremacy, Infallibility seems a stretch.
Think on this: the Pope of Alexandria has attached to his name many grandiose titles, just as the Pope of Rome. However, everyone reads the Alexandrian Pope’s titles as exaggerations but are expected to read the Roman Pope’s titles at face-value.
But enough of that, I have a question… what is the purpose of Papal Infallibility? It has been used only twice, once retroactively, and, in a way, neither was needed. Both sides seem to be squabbling over something that has no real purpose. Of course Mary was sinless and born such – (Immaculate Conception) – Original Sin in the West is based partly off a mistranslation of Romans v, 12, from the Greek into the Latin and then partly based off the theologies of St. Augustine and Anselm. Thus, Mary could easily be seen, if such mistranslation never occurred, as Immaculate (without sin) throughout her life as we do not inherit the sin of our parents (and so cannot have inherited the sin of Adam, the effects, yes we do inherit, but the sin itself?) and Mary had/has free will and such could easily have chosen, since she was chosen by God to bear the Son and thus favored by God, not to commit any personal sin. As for the Assumption, that is accepted without Papal pronouncement in the East since ancient times. Thus, a Papal statement claiming infallibility was unnecessary to determine or uphold its truth.
Thank you.