M
mardukm
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EXCELLENT!!!
Blessings
Blessings
I was going to identify the same thing until I realized that what Marduk was meaning to say was this:
The phrase “not from the consent of the Church” does not mean that the definitions come from the Pope alone, but rather that the irreformability of the definitions does not come from the consent of the Church. That is to say, consent doesn’t make it infallible, the charism of the Holy Spirit does, which was promised to the Papacy.
Therefore, he was trying to demonstrate that the “not from the consent of the Church” phrase is meant to refer to the source of the irreformability of the definitions, not to the source of the definitions themselves.
He was trying to highlight two facts: Irreformability of the definitions comes from the office of the Papacy, but the definitions themselves may arise by consent of the Church. That is, the Pope may consult with the Church in developing the definitions, but it is not the consultation, or the concensus of defition which makes the definitions irreformable. It is the Petrine Office which does so, because it has been promised the charism of infallibility.