Papal infallibility vs councils?

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UnityofTrinity

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If the doctrine of Papal Infallibility already defined at Vatican I, why would the pope still need councils to define doctrines?( Vatican II), why can’t he just use his office and declare the teachings and the revision which he already has in mind?
 
Here’s a thread with a book report about this subject.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=582167

While the Holy Father possesses infallibility alone, when speaking “from the chair of Peter” on matters of faith and morals, he shares infallibility when speaking with all the bishops of the world.

The book explains this in terms of the Traditioin of the Church which was established by Christ.

Loosely, the things to think about: Jesus told the Apostles that He wouild send them the Paraclete (The Holy Spirit) who would teach them all truths. Thus, they all would be infallible teachers. That was an extraordinary gift only to the apostles, that they would be gifted directly with divine inspiration. But, their successors, the bishops, share in their office and collectively share infallibility with the Holy Father.

There’s no word “versus” or “vs” in the discussion, in a literal sense.
 
The Pope is infalible in cases of “Ex Cathedra” (from the chair). My understanding is that it has only been used three times in the history of the Church.
 
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