Papal Infallibility

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I am nearly Catholic in my beliefs.

Transubstantiation, the Marian dogmas, Papal Primacy - I believe those. All these things I see present in the early Church. What I really cannot see in New Testament and early (ie pre Chalecedonian) Christianity is Papal Infallibility.

I understand that doctrine develops, but one can see the basics of Trinitarian theology in the New Testament long before the Councils and the Cappadocians refined it; and the same can be said for Christology long before Chalcedon.

Can anyone show me, using genuine historical and theological sources, how Papal *Infallibility * (not primacy) was part of early Christianity? To me it seems a suspiciously late innovation…

Thank you.
 
That’s not so hard…

Matthew 16:18 And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.

Matthew 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world.

Since papal succession is sort of a conjoined issue I have also included some articles to walk you through that as well.

I hope these help.
 
John_Augustine said:
Can anyone show me, using genuine historical and theological sources, how Papal *Infallibility * (not primacy) was part of early Christianity?
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It is true that you will not find the doctrine expressed in terms as clear as those used in Vatican I. But, if you believe that the Magesterium of the Church cannot teach error (and you didn’t say whether you do or not) then it’s difficult to separate the Primacy of the Pope from his charism of infallibility.

To the Early Church, the primacy and infallibility were intertwined. We readily see that the Early Church regarded the Pope’s decisions as binding and final - without recourse. So, if there is no recourse to a Pope’s decision, and the Pope can teach error, then the Church can teach error. And this idea is something that the Fathers clearly rejected.

I noticed your signature mentions St. Augustine, who would agree with my point:
[On this matter of the Pelagians] two councils have already been sent to the Apostolic See [the bishop of Rome], and from there rescripts too have come. The matter is at an end; would that the error too might be at an end! (St. Augistine, *Sermons *131:10 [A.D. 411]).
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You may find numerous similar sentiments in these CA tracts:
And, remember, it was Peter whom Jesus commissioned (three times) to “feed my sheep.” Shall Peter feed us poison?
 
FWIW, there are only two papal statements concerning dogma generally recognized as being infallible:
  1. Immaculate Conception.
  2. Assumption.
Keep in mind that papal infallibility does NOT mean everything the pope says is infallible, or he is preserved from error in mere prudential matters, still less that he personally is impeccable.
 
Dear brother John Augustine,

I hope these help:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=369272
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=259973
John_Augustine said:
I am nearly Catholic in my beliefs.

Transubstantiation, the Marian dogmas, Papal Primacy - I believe those. All these things I see present in the early Church. What I really cannot see in New Testament and early (ie pre Chalecedonian) Christianity is Papal Infallibility.

I understand that doctrine develops, but one can see the basics of Trinitarian theology in the New Testament long before the Councils and the Cappadocians refined it; and the same can be said for Christology long before Chalcedon.

Can anyone show me, using genuine historical and theological sources, how Papal *Infallibility * (not primacy) was part of early Christianity? To me it seems a suspiciously late innovation…

Thank you.
Click to expand...
Aside from those links (please do take the time to read them), there are several other things that need to be pointed out regarding papal infallibility, and infallibility in general.

Papal infallibility is not “personal.” In other words, it belongs to the office, not the person of the Pope. If a Pope retires, he doesn’t take infallibility with him, because it is a Grace of the office. Of course, while in the office, the Pope is invested with it in a personal sense. But, even then, as brother bpbasilphx has pointed out, it is an EXTRAordinary exercise of the office. In other words, when the Pope is not speaking ex cathedra, he is not “infallible,” IOW, he doesn’t have it all the time, but only when he is exercising a special function in this office as Pope - namely to confirm the Faith of the brethren, which is what occurs in an ex cathedra decree. In biblical terms, when the Pope is confirming the Faith of the brethren in an ex cathedra decree, he obtains the same special prayer that Christ promised to St. Peter when He gave St. Peter the charge to be the confirmer of the Faith of his brother Apostles.

Papal infallibility is simply the same Grace Jesus promised to Peter to confirm the Faith of his brethren, and through the principle of apostolic succession, passed down to his immediate successors. St. Peter made use of and claimed this infallibility at the Council of Jerusalem when he asserted with authority “God made choice among you that by my mouth…” One of the tenets of apostolic succesion, as you might know, is that everything that was given to the Apostles by Christ for the upbuilding of His Body the Church, was passed on by the Apostles to their successors the bishops (well, everything but the Grace of Inspiration, which was given to the Apostles since they were direct witnesses of Christ’s ministry). As you can see, papal infallibility was not invented. To repeat, it is simply the same Grace Jesus promised to Peter to confirm the Faith of his brethren, and through the principle of apostolic succession, passed down to his immediate successors.

I have seen some Catholics claim that the Pope is the be all and end all of infallibility in the Church and that any infallibility the Church possesses is so simply because the Pope is infallible. This is wholly false. In fact, infallibility does not belong to the Pope. It belongs to God alone who Graces His Church with it according to His Will for the upbuilding of the Body of Christ. Infallibility is present in the Church in a number of ways - 1) the Church as a whole possesses it by which she maintains her indefectibility; 2) an Ecumenical Council possesses it; 3) the ordinary magisterium of bishops throughout the world possesses it collectively and singly when they teach on a matter of faith and/or morals definitively and unanimously (in unison with the head bishop, of course). The Papal infallibility defined by V1 is not even active in these other instances of infallibility in the Church.

As stated, infallibility is God’s and God’s alone to give. The Pope does not give the Church or an Ecumenical Council its infallibility, because it is not his to give. The Church does not give the Pope nor an Ecumenical Council their infallibility because it is not the Church’s to give. And an Ecumenical Council does not give the Pope or the Church their infallibility because it is not an Ecumenical Council’s to give. It is God’s and God’s alone.

Another way to look at it is that the infallibility of the Pope in an ex cathedra decree, and the infallibility of an Ecumenical Council, are simply special cases of the selfsame infallibility given by God to his Church. That’s actually and exactly how V1 defines papal infallibility!

I hope that helps.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
OOPS! Clarification on the following.
mardukm said:
  1. the ordinary magisterium of bishops throughout the world possesses it collectively and singly when they teach on a matter of faith and/or morals definitively and unanimously (in unison with the head bishop, of course).
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It should read:
The ordinary magisterium of bishops throughout the world possesses it collectively when they teach on a matter of faith and/or morals definitively and unanimously (in unison with the head bishop, of course). Though bishops may not possess it individually in this context (not even the Pope), it can surely be said, given the prior conditions, that the bishops are giving us infallible teaching.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
See here for another thread where we were discussing Brian Tierney’s work placing the origins of papal infallibility in 1150-1350 within the context of political squabble among the Franciscans.
 
As Catholics we believe that Christ promised that his Church would be protected from teaching error (see John 16:13; Matthew 16:18; 1 Timothy 3:15). HOW IS THIS DONE?

The Magisterium:
· Made up of the bishops of the Universal Church under the primacy of the bishop of Rome, the Pope.
· As Catholics we believe that Christ promised that his Church would be protected from teaching error.
  1. This is what we call infallibity. This is part of the *Extraordinary *Magisterium of the Church.
  2. It is given to the Church as a whole, but in a special way to the Pope, the bishop of Rome, the successor of St. Peter.
  3. See Mt 16:13-19 (Is 22:19-22); Lk 22:31-32; Jn 21:15-19; Jn 16:13; 1 Ti 3:15).
· What infallibity does NOT mean:
  1. Infallibity does not mean impeccability; that the Pope, personally, is incapable of sinning.
  2. It does not mean that the Pope is always correct in every off-hand remark. If the Pope
    says the Red Sox are going to the World Series this year, he has a much chance
    of being correct (or incorrect) as anyone else.
    · So, what is the definition of infallibity? As defined by the first Vatican Council (1870):
The Pope is infallible when he speaks ex cathedra—that is, when as pastor and teacher of all Christians, he defines, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the Universal Church.

· From this we can see that **four specific conditions **have to be met to qualify a teaching of the Pope as an exercise of papal infallibity:
  1. **The Pope must be speaking ex cathedra—**from his position as supreme and universal pastor. Not as a private theologian, bishop of Rome, sovereign of Vatican City, etc.
  2. He must be defining a doctrine—not just commenting, explaining, exhorting, or discussing. It is a final and definitive judgment on a particular issue or subject.
  3. The doctrine must concern faith or morals. It can concern both revealed doctrine (e.g. Perpetual Virginity of Mary) and Natural Law (e.g. abortion).
  4. It must be addressed to the whole Church, not just a segment of her.
Any statement by a Pope that meets the above criteria even before infallibility was formally defined in 1870 can be considered infallible teaching.

· Papal infallibility does not mean that God “inspires” the Pope to make a pronouncement.
· Instead, it means that the Holy Spirit protects the Pope from teaching error.
  1. Rather than saying: “the Pope is infallible,” it is more accurate to say: “the Pope can speak infallibly.”
  2. The Pope cannot invent new doctrines or create new sacraments, etc. He can only re-state, reinforce, clarify and define what the Church has always taught.
· Examples of recent, formal infallible ex cathedra pronouncements:
  1. Mary’s Immaculate Conception (December 8, 1854; Pope Pius IX)
  2. Mary’s Assumption into Heaven (November 1, 1950; Pope Pius XII)
· Examples of non-infallible pronouncements:
  1. Announcements of new devotions or changes in the Mass.
  2. Exhortation or commentary on political or other current events.
· Infallibity also extends to the bishops under certain circumstances (Mt. 18:15-18):
  1. When they propose a teaching while dispersed, but in unison. (Ordinary Magisterium and universal teaching).
  2. When, in union with the Pope, they proclaim a doctrine at a General Council (Extraordinary Magisterium and universal teaching).
· There is also the Ordinary Magisterium:
  1. The constant teaching of the Pope and bishops.
  2. The doctrines that have not been solemnly defined but have been taught by the Church from the beginning.
  3. These have not been defined because they are clear and have not been challenged.
· Just because a teaching has not been formally defined does not mean that Catholics do not have to believe it.
  1. Most Catholic doctrines have never been *formally *defined.
  2. Some examples: 1) the spirituality of the soul, 2) the particular judgment after death, 3) guardian angels, 4) the evil of the murder of an innocent (including abortion, 5) prohibition of contraception, 6) the non-ordination of women.
 
Dear brother Fidelis,
Fidelis said:
Thanks Madukm. :tiphat: It’s part of a lesson plan I put together for an apologetics series I teach.
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An apologetics class! Awesome.

How would you answer a member of your class who asks:
Is the Pope’s infallibility ex cathedra what gives an Ecumenical Council it’s infallibility?

(playing devil’s advocate :D)

Blessings
 
mardukm said:
Dear brother Fidelis,

An apologetics class! Awesome.

How would you answer a member of your class who asks:
Is the Pope’s infallibility ex cathedra what gives an Ecumenical Council it’s infallibility?

(playing devil’s advocate :D)

Blessings
Click to expand...
I would refer them to the point in my outline where it says:
· Infallibity also extends to the bishops under certain circumstances (Mt. 18:15-18):
  1. When they propose a teaching while dispersed, but in unison. (Ordinary Magisterium and universal teaching).
    2. When, in union with the Pope, they proclaim a doctrine at a General Council (Extraordinary Magisterium and universal teaching).
Click to expand...
Of course, in class I’d try to expand on it and give some fr’instances, but that’s the gist of what the Church teaches about it. They can collectively teach infallibly at a Council, but it has to be in explicit union with the Pope, or it’s a no-go. Perhaps one can refer to it in that particular circumstance as a ‘collective infallibility.’
 
Fidelis said:
I would refer them to the point in my outline where it says:

Of course, in class I’d try to expand on it and give some fr’instances, but that’s the gist of what the Church teaches about it. They can collectively teach infallibly at a Council, but it has to be in explicit union with the Pope, or it’s a no-go. Perhaps one can refer to it in that particular circumstance as a ‘collective infallibility.’
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OK. So your class member asks the next question:

So are you saying that the body of bishops, before the Pope confirms its dogmatic decrees, is not Graced with infallibility?

Blessings
 
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