L
Lost_Sheep
Guest
I got into a discussion yesterday with one of my non-Catholic friends who tends to lean well into the liberal side of the political spectrum. We were on the discussion of the Synod whose proposal in that the Church should be more to gays and lesbians.
My friend (wrongly) believes that the Church has sanctioned gay “marriage” based on the Holy Father’s infamous “Who am I to judge?” quip. She thinks that since the pope is “infallible” that the Who am I to judge?" statement has automatically changed Church doctrine which, of course, is not true.
I politely suggested the she study up on the doctrine of infallibility before she makes such allegations; that it only applies to faith and morals, must be made Ex Cathedra, etc.
But it made me wonder. Is the doctrine of infallibility something that is invoked often, or is it a rare occasion?
My friend (wrongly) believes that the Church has sanctioned gay “marriage” based on the Holy Father’s infamous “Who am I to judge?” quip. She thinks that since the pope is “infallible” that the Who am I to judge?" statement has automatically changed Church doctrine which, of course, is not true.
I politely suggested the she study up on the doctrine of infallibility before she makes such allegations; that it only applies to faith and morals, must be made Ex Cathedra, etc.
But it made me wonder. Is the doctrine of infallibility something that is invoked often, or is it a rare occasion?