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Nine_Two
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And?693 mi Athens to Antioch
653 mi Athens to Rome
40 miles
That’s cutting it close![]()
And?693 mi Athens to Antioch
653 mi Athens to Rome
40 miles
That’s cutting it close![]()
So you agree with Rome* exercising jurisdiction over other sees in other countries, isn’t some new development as late commers want to argue. It was already happening DURING apostolic times.? *This is why I think that either you have no idea what you’re arguing against, or what you are actually arguing for. None of those things are something we disagree with.
When Peter moved, his new place was his see. Peter’s see is Rome.Your final point, however, is exactly what the issue is, and what I’ve been arguing about. Though the Bishop of Rome (Peter had three sees, even according to the Roman reconing) was involved in other juristictions, it has not been shown that this is anything like the immediate juristiction believed by the modern Catholic Church.
Oh really?Any Bishop could intervene in any other see,
How do you distinguish between intervene and interfere?and Rome, as the highest in honour, was the one who was asked in the bulk (if not all) major cases. But that doesn’t mean the Bishop of Rome had the right to interfere.
Are you claiming to be the Catholic Church?They were all Catholic, as am I. They were also all Orthodox, as am I. I’m not sure what your point is with labels.
When I asked why Corinth didn’t ask St John who was living less that 200 miles away, for assistance to fix sedition among their bishops, you respondedYou mean by saying he wasn’t a micromanager in charge of every aspect of the Church? How dare I! That’s blasphemy, or something.
You’re the one that saidI’m a bit stunned that you’re the one dismissing him as less important than the Roman Bishop, and then you accuse me of dismissing him when I said he didn’t arbitrate over every dispute because he had other things he was doing.
Let’s not be hypocritical here. You don’t have name only Orthodox in your ranks? Every Orthodox tows the line without any disagreements or scandal?Explain to me why I was watching two prominent communing Catholics on TV during my lunch hour (Colbert and Pelosi) basically saying the Bishops (and therefore the Pope) was wrong on this whole contraception thing?
nonsense.The view of the pope is certainly equivalent to the Anglo view of the Monarchy. You have some people who really care, but most don’t.
Yet it’s the eternal city, see of St Peter. With all the promises Jesus gave the papacy. And here we are 2000 years later. That gives me great peace of mindAs for the prominence of Rome. Study your history. It was a cesspool for much of its history, it was abandoned for Avignon for a significant period of the Middle Ages, when Byzantium retook Southern Italy (Including Rome), they made the capital Ravanna.
Like most major cities, the influence of Rome has waxed and waned throughout the years.
At their request. Absolutely.So you agree with Rome* exercising jurisdiction over other sees in other countries, isn’t some new development as late commers want to argue. It was already happening DURING apostolic times.? *
That of a mediator.Let me ask you. What kind of jurisdiction did Clement exercise in dealing with Sedition in Corinth?
On the condition that he is invited.Oh really?
To interfere is to forcibly intervene. It is a type of intervention, but a type that should be avoided.How do you distinguish between intervene and interfere?
I am claiming to be a member of the Catholic Church, the same Catholic Church in which they were members.Are you claiming to be the Catholic Church?
Being asked to arbitrate does not make one a supreme authority.When I asked why Corinth didn’t ask St John who was living less that 200 miles away, for assistance to fix sedition among their bishops, you responded
“St. John was NOT supreme over the Church. Ever. Nor was he a mediator of all the disputes that arose in the Church. He had his own mission within the Church.”
You realize by saying that, you’re the one saying, when Clement was asked instead of John, that means Clement has supreme authority over the Church, a mediator of all disputes in the Church.
Would you mind clarifying. I’m not sure what you’re trying to say.You’re the one that said
“St. John was NOT supreme over the Church. Ever. Nor was he a mediator of all the disputes that arose in the Church. He had his own mission within the Church.”
You realize, by that statement, you’re saying the one Corinth chooses to mediate, will be the one who fits that description.
You missed the point entirely. I was not trying to point out that there are Caffeteria Catholics. I was pointing out the influence of the Pope. You seem to hold the opinion that he is of supreme influence in all the world. I was suggesting this is not true, even among those numbered as Catholics.Let’s not be hypocritical here. You don’t have name only Orthodox in your ranks? Every Orthodox tows the line without any disagreements or scandal?
Everybody knows what the CC teaches. Good Catholics obey the Church. Disobedient Catholics don’t. Bishops have told Pelosi, Biden, Kerry, Sebelius, et al, not to receive communion. The onus now is on the offending individuals. They know, during final judgment, they will answer for what they do.
Yes, you’ve been doing that throughout this discussion. You don’t have a counter, you just give a one liner dismissal. Tell me why this isn’t an apt description, or conceed that the Pope is not overly influential in the modern world.nonsense.
And this has what to do with anything?Yet it’s the eternal city, see of St Peter. With all the promises Jesus gave the papacy. And here we are 2000 years later. That gives me great peace of mind
Then why didn’t they ask John?That of a mediator.
using the EO as an example, you mean if you had a diocese with a bishop(s) in sedition, no EO bishop regardless of rank could step in and try to fix it unless invited?On the condition that he is invited.
What about the previous example?To interfere is to forcibly intervene. It is a type of intervention, but a type that should be avoided.
So you believe the followingI am claiming to be a member of the Catholic Church, the same Catholic Church in which they were members.
Arbitrators settle matters. Their decisions are binding.Being asked to arbitrate does not make one a supreme authority
Rome has supremacy because it’s the chair of Peter.Would you mind clarifying. I’m not sure what you’re trying to say.
Are you saying that Rome had supremacy by vertue of the fact that Corinth asked them to mediate? If you are I’d certainly agree that Rome was granted it in that dispute Corinth certainly didn’t have the authority to grant it for all time over every See.
The pope is a highly visible force and witness in the world. President Reagan and JPII became allies to defeat the Russian communists. And they did it without fireing a shot. Gorbechev even credits JPII for the collapse of communism.You missed the point entirely. I was not trying to point out that there are Caffeteria Catholics. I was pointing out the influence of the Pope. You seem to hold the opinion that he is of supreme influence in all the world. I was suggesting this is not true, even among those numbered as Catholics.
I’d say I gave you a pretty good counter. No One argues the visibility of the pope on the world stage.Yes, you’ve been doing that throughout this discussion. You don’t have a counter, you just give a one liner dismissal. Tell me why this isn’t an apt description, or conceed that the Pope is not overly influential in the modern world.
You’re either going in circles, begging the question, or coming in with non-sequiters with the odd ad hominem thrown in for good measure.Then why didn’t they ask John?
using the EO as an example, you mean if you had a diocese with a bishop(s) in sedition, no EO bishop regardless of rank could step in and try to fix it unless invited?
What about the previous example?
So you believe the following
Bk 3 ch 3, vs 2-3 “Against Heresies”
2. Since, however, it would be very tedious, in such a volume as this, to reckon up the successions of all the Churches, we do put to confusion all those who, in whatever manner, whether by an evil self-pleasing, by vainglory, or by blindness and perverse opinion, assemble in unauthorized meetings; [we do this, I say,] by indicating that tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; as also [by pointing out] the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops. For it is a matter of necessity that every Church should agree with this Church, on account of its pre- eminent authority, inasmuch as the apostolic tradition has been preserved continuously by those faithful men] who exist everywhere.
Arbitrators settle matters. Their decisions are binding.
Rome has supremacy because it’s the chair of Peter.
The pope is a highly visible force and witness in the world. President Reagan and JPII became allies to defeat the Russian communists. And they did it without fireing a shot. Gorbechev even credits JPII for the collapse of communism.
Not bad. eh?
otoh Patriarch Alexie II head of the ROC, who was a KGB member, codename Drozdov, didn’t even let JPII visit Catholics in Russia.
I’d say I gave you a pretty good counter. No One argues the visibility of the pope on the world stage.
According to a number of scholars that St John at that time was in exile around the year 95 that is the same year (or 96) that St Clement wrote his letter,however in that Epistle he did not act of his own authority, but in the name of the Church at Rome, and from motives of charity, nowhere it mentions that he was speaking in the name of the Chair of St Peter or in the office that he occupies, if the Bishop of Rome himself had written the letter, one might expect him to assert his authority ( as the RCC claims) by mentioning his position.Then why didn’t they ask John?
Read Acts 15.The difference is that I haven’t yet seen it demonstrated that the Pope is the bishop of all churches.
This is what you say, but here is what one of the greatest Doctors of your church says about this matter ( St. John Chrysostom):Read Acts 15.
[1] And some ***coming down ***from Judea, taught the brethren: That except you be circumcised after the manner of Moses, you cannot be saved. [2] And when Paul and Barnabas had no small contest with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas, and certain others of the other side, should ***go up to ***the apostles and priests to Jerusalem about this question…
[6] And the apostles and ancients assembled to consider of this matter. [7] And when there had been much disputing, Peter, rising up, said to them:
Notice what happens. The authorities in the Church meet at Jerusalem, which is Saint Jame’s See/Bishopric, to consider a matter. They consider the matter (just like the Council Fathers at Trent, for example), and once it devolves into disputing, Saint Peter rises up (the only person recorded to have done such a thing) and declares something to them all. And what is the consequence of this?
[12] And all the multitude held their peace;
Voila. “All the multitude” it says, even! But in case you didn’t catch it the first time, the very next verse begins,
[13] And after they had held their peace, James answered, saying:
· “scholars” as a term , without naming names is rather nebulous. There are also “sclolars” like William Jurgens who date Clement’s letter early 80’s.According to a number of scholars that St John at that time was in exile around the year 95 that is the same year (or 96) that St Clement wrote his letter,however in that Epistle he did not act of his own authority, but in the name of the Church at Rome, and from motives of charity, nowhere it mentions that he was speaking in the name of the Chair of St Peter or in the office that he occupies, if the Bishop of Rome himself had written the letter, one might expect him to assert his authority ( as the RCC claims) by mentioning his position.
If one only had Clement’s letter alone, in all of history, to try and build a case for the office of Peter, and Clement as his successor, I agree that would be silly. But putting his letter with 2000 years of writings, some to follow, the job becomes easy.All we have that he spoke in the name of the Church of Rome not in the name of the office of Peter or in the name of the Pope …etc
I wouldn’t make Hermas the smoking gun for that point.Hermas, who was also from Rome, nowhere calls Clement or anyone else in his day, the Bishop of Rome,
Ignatius wrote the following to Smyrna. You know the quoteit is striking that few years later the Bishop of Antioch Saint Ignatios could write the Church in Rome and give no indication that there was a single Bishop in charge where he mentioned the names of the Bishops in all other Churches except Rome.
Read the first quote you cited here carefully which can be interpreted supporting the Catholic position as it says: Peter spoke more strongly while James more midly…talk about James being more authoritative than Peter…This is what you say, but here is what one of the greatest Doctors of your church says about this matter ( St. John Chrysostom):
"This (James) was bishop, as they say, and therefore he speaks last. There was no arrogance in the Church. After Peter, Paul speaks, and none silences him: James waits patiently; not starts up (for the next word). No word speaks John here, no word the other Apostles, but held their peace, for James was invested with the chief rule, and think it no hardship. So clean was their soul from love of glory. Peter indeed spoke more strongly, but James here more mildly: for thus it behooves one in high authority, to leave what is unpleasant for others to say, while he himself appears in the milder part.
St John Chrysostom,Homily XXXIII on Acts xv.
"
And again here:
“…Peter too hearing this joins in the feint, as if he had erred, that they might be corrected by means of the rebuke administered to him. Had Paul reproved these Jews, they would have spurned at it with indignation, for they held him in slight esteem; but now, when they saw their Teacher silent under rebuke, they were unable to despise or resist Paul’s sentence” St John Chrysostom,Homily on Galatians.
Only if you omit the part where he says that it behooves those in high authority to leave what is unpleasant to say to others. That would be a very twisted hermeneutic, for sure.Read the first quote you cited here carefully which can be interpreted supporting the Catholic position as it says: Peter spoke more strongly while James more midly…talk about James being more authoritative than Peter…
No one needs to omit it. The first quote given by “Ignatios”, does not state that James has higher authority than that of Peter (nor am I saying you stated it). If any, it states that James has high authority. This doesn’t mean his authority is of a higher rank than Peter. Lets look at some of the possibilities interpreting this quote.Only if you omit the part where he says that it behooves those in high authority to leave what is unpleasant to say to others. That would be a very twisted hermeneutic, for sure.
• “scholars” as a term , without naming names is rather nebulous.
Check your church and see which date they find more agreeable.
Yes and there is some scholars who date the revelation back to the 50s.There are also “sclolars” like William Jurgens who date Clement’s letter early 80’s.
The contention point is not the word “I” or “we” it is about the claim that the RCC tries to attach to this event as a proof of Papal Supremacy while there is no indication of it at all, for the simple reason that the Letter was written in the name of the Church of Rome and the Papal claim states that the Pope’s jurisdiction derive not from the Church but from CHRIST HIMSELF and it is clear that there is no indication of such thing in Clement’s letter• rarely do Popes in writing, use “I” referring to themselves.
• John being exiled on Patmos is open to debate.
Are you suggesting that you doubt john banishment into exile???The point is, Clement and John are alive at the time Clement settles sedition in Corinth. And John is living less than 200 miles from Corinth whether it is Patmos or Ephesus
John was “banished into exile” if one is being banished in that time during a major persecution and forcefully then it would be obvious that he was out of reach, and it would make lots of sense for the Corinthian to call up on the closest one to the Apostles that is Clement since he also was very close to Paul the one who found that Church.
Easy??? Is that why the RCC been trying to assert this for well over a millennium and every time they try a schism happens should I remind you that one of the reasons that the schism happens because of this assertion not to mention the schisms that took place prior to this one and they were healed let alone the schisms within the Roman church all the way up to recent centuries…besides likewise I say, if it was only Clement’s letter than that would be fine and okay but there is well over a millennium of such proves and even much better.If one only had Clement’s letter alone, in all of history, to try and build a case for the office of Peter, and Clement as his successor, I agree that would be silly. But putting his letter with 2000 years of writings, some to follow, the job becomes easy.
Well not “the” smoking gun but one of many.I wouldn’t make Hermas the smoking gun for that point.
But he did mention HIS Power, Miracles, Authority and he even called LORD and GOD when he referred to his commandments …etc, but nowhere did he refer to the Power of the Pope or his universal jurisdiction he didn’t even spoke of the Pope of Rome but on the contrary what he said actually back up the theory that there was no organized hierarchal yet established in Rome for he was still talking about presbyters over the Church in Rome in which it proves the orthodox stand that the Papacy power is a development that it accumulated with time and not of divine origin.Hermas, in the writings we have from him, never mentions Jesus either. Does that mean Hermas doesn’t think Jesus exists?
Here read this from Hermas writing in which it goes in line with what I was talking about:
“…You will write therefore two books, and you will send the one to Clemens and the other to Grapte. And Clemens will send his to foreign countries, for permission has been granted to him to do so.And Grapte will admonish the widows and the orphans. But you will read the words in this city, along with the presbyters who preside over the Church.”
Notice here, it says Clement not Pope or the Bishop or the head of the Roman Church, then at the end it says with the “presbytersssss who preside over the Church” and no it is not the CHURCH universal because she said just before this “you will read the words in THIS CITY”. newadvent.org/fathers/02011.htm
TO SMYRNA…not to Rome… why??? Because if there was a Bishop in Rome at that time and especially of great importance aaaaand as the RCC suggest that his jurisdiction was of divine aaaand a major Bishop who ruled over all others, then by all means this is where we would have seen it if it was not a flawed, as Ignatios named every bishop major and small alike, now if he didn’t mention Rome at all then maybe that would have been okay, but the longest letter and he spoke very lofty of the Church of Rome BUTTTT no word about the Bishop there let alone the “POPE”.Ignatius wrote the following to Smyrna. You know the quote
. [snip] Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude…
Okay was there a Bishop in Rome? If you answer yes as I suppose you do and a bishop of lofty rank actually who presides over the whole universal Church per the RCC …etc then how come he wasn’t even mentioned ???
OOOHHH I agree Ignatios wouldn’t break such rule, but then why did he not mention the Bishop of Rome or directed any words or salutation to him as he did with the others??? What says you?Why assume Ignatius would break his own rule when writing to the Church of Rome and bypass the bishop? In 107 a.d., Pope Alexander is in the chair of Peter.
I wouldn’t use that as a prove, for you have Chrysostom says something and Irenaeus says something else and yet Eusebius something else.Irenaeus mentions Alexander, in the lineage of popes mentioned in “Against Heresies” . Irenaeus also describes Clement’s letter to Corinth. Ignatius would also know this up to his time
Bk 3 Ch 3
3. The blessed apostles, then, …(snip for space by Ignatios)
[snip for space]
.given Ignatius frame of mind and what he taught. “Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop” he knew his letter would need to go to the bishop of Rome 1st
Okay great and well… but how come there is no mentioning of the Bishop of Rome, please do not give any supposition for if you do then a zillion diffrent supposition can I provide, I mean it if there is any historical fact whatever it is I welcome it with great thanks.
Since you retracted in your post from what you were trying to imply in your earlier ones, I would leave it at that for the sake of your humility that you have showed in your retraction.No one needs to omit it. The first quote given by “Ignatios”, does not state that James has higher authority than that of Peter (nor am I saying you stated it). If any, it states that James has high authority. This doesn’t mean his authority is of a higher rank than Peter. Lets look at some of the possibilities interpreting this quote.
1- St. John states that Peter has Higher authority
2- St. John states that James has higher authority
3- Neither
One could argue Number 1 because of Peter speaking more strongly. But one would need to ignore that here St. John is speaking more about St. James and his authority.
One could are argue Number 2 because of 2 sayings here. The first one is: “for James was invested with the chief rule”. But this does not undermine Peter’s authority. Here St. John speaks that James was “chief”. I posted this quote before but will do so again to make my point clear:
“He took the coryphaei and led them up into a high mountain apart…Why does he take these three alone? Because they excelled the others. Peter showed his excellence by his great love of Him, John by being greatly loved, James by the answer…‘We are able to drink the chalice.’” (Hom 56[57] in Matt, vol VII, 550[566])
The word “coryphaei” can mean leader, head, spokesmen, or even “chief”
- St. John Chrysostom
thefreedictionary.com/coryphaei
There is also another quote (which I unfortunately do not have in hand right now) where St. John refers to these 3 as “chiefs”.
He also wrote:
“Do you not see that the headship was in the hands of these three, especially of Peter and James?.” (Hom 26 in Acta, vol IX, 198[208] and ibid, 199[209]).
The other 3rd not mentioned here is St. John (the apostle).
But St. John Chrysostom in many of his writings says that Peter is above in authority than even those other two holy apostles.
“In the Kingdom, therefore, the honors were not equal, nor were all the disciples equal, but the three were above the rest; and among these three again there was a great difference, for God is exact tot he last degree; ‘for one star differeth from another star in glory.’ And yet all were apostles, all will sit upon the twelve thrones, and all left their possessions, and all were with Christ. And yet he selected these three. And, again, among the three, He said that some must yield or excel. For, ‘to sit on My right hand and on My left,’ he said, ‘is not Mine to give, but to them for whom it is prepared,’ And He set Peter before them saying: ‘Lovest thou Me more than these?’” (Hom 32, in Rom 4, vol IX, 672[750]).
Other quotes ive cited support this idea.
Now lets suppose for once that St. John actually said that St. James had more authority than Peter (which im sure he did not). I would like to see more writings of other Church Fathers stating that…
I’m pretty sure neither Catholics or Orthodox believe in such.
Now lets look at number 3. I see St. John describing in different ways the Authority of these 2 apostles. Peter speaking strongly, and James he describes as a “chief” and with "High authority. Thats it. Nothing more.
To sum it up, I think this quote neither favors the Catholic or the Orthodox position. Its just a simple comment from St. John speaking of 2 apostles, the authority they had in a council, and that’s it. I see no supremacy from neither here. You may interpret otherwise though.
Other quotes though…have a more clear language which support the Catholic position regarding Peter’s Supremacy. Orthodox of course, interpret otherwise.
Um… no I haven’t retracted from any of my positions. Read again. All my comments.Since you retracted in your post from what you were trying to imply in your earlier ones, I would leave it at that for the sake of your humility that you have showed in your retraction.
May GOD bless you and all †††
Clement ~88 - 97Check your church and see which date they find more agreeable.
“some this” and “some that” isn’t helpful. That’s why I say, quote the scholar by name.Yes and there is some scholars who date the revelation back to the 50s.
Are you arguing that Clement didn’t write that 1st letter to the corinthians?The contention point is not the word “I” or “we” it is about the claim that the RCC tries to attach to this event as a proof of Papal Supremacy while there is no indication of it at all, for the simple reason that the Letter was written in the name of the Church of Rome and the Papal claim states that the Pope’s jurisdiction derive not from the Church but from CHRIST HIMSELF and it is clear that there is no indication of such thing in Clement’s letter
we’re talking about dates.Are you suggesting that you doubt john banishment into exile???
See my previous point.John was “banished into exile” if one is being banished in that time during a major persecution and forcefully then it would be obvious that he was out of reach,
.
The chair of Peter is still here and 1.3 B people are in communion with Peter’s successor.Easy??? Is that why the RCC been trying to assert this for well over a millennium and every time they try a schism happens should I remind you that one of the reasons that the schism happens because of this assertion not to mention the schisms that took place prior to this one.
From ClementBut he did mention HIS Power, Miracles, Authority and he even called LORD and GOD when he referred to his commandments …etc, but nowhere did he refer to the Power of the Pope or his universal jurisdiction he didn’t even spoke of the Pope of Rome but on the contrary what he said actually back up the theory that there was no organized hierarchal yet established in Rome for he was still talking about presbyters over the Church in Rome in which it proves the orthodox stand that the Papacy power is a development that it accumulated with time and not of divine origin.
your commentary is notHere read this from Hermas writing in which it goes in line with what I was talking about:
“…