A
Andrew_11
Guest
I just read a thread in the ask an apologist section ( forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=85386 ) the apologist said that a if a parplegic (actually anyone) who was impotent would be denied marrige because they could not connsumate the marrige, which the apologist claimed was necessarry. My point is this, Mary and Joseph never connsumated their marrige, why would a person who was not able to consummate a marrige be denied, it would be the same as a couple who decided not to consummate a marrige (as Mary and Joseph did).