Neither.
I refer you to the Jerome Biblical commentary, p. 716:
(v)36 from now on: A new time within the era of fulfillment is dawning. Hostility will be the churchâs bedfellow. Jesus has told them so. sword: The reference to this destructive weapon must be taken in the total context of Luke-Acts and the immediate context of vv. 38, 47-53. Since Luke narrates in his Gospel that Jesus not only preached love of enemie (6:26-36) but also lived that teaching (9:51-55;23:34), and since he narrates in Acts that Paul and other missionaries never use swords, he cannot mean by âswordâ here a lethal weapon. Since in v. 38 Luke depicts Jesusâ disgust with the disciples literal understanding of his owrds in v. 36 and since he repremands the use of a sword in 22:47-53 and even heals the wounded person, Luke cannot mean here a destructive weapon. Rather âswordâ is a symbol for cirsis. A paraphrase of the latter part of v.36 is: Sell your mantle and buy trouble.
(v) 37 Again Luke underlines in this discourse that what Jesus is about is according to Godâs plan. He is the new Servant of Yahweh (Isa 53:12). If Jesus is treated this way, so too will be his disciples.
(v) 38 thatâs enough! The reader should not miss the Lucan irony.
The commentary brings up a good point, which I wanted to address before. If Jesus had really meant to carry a sword, then his greatest apostle, Paul, failed to obey him. Either that, or the Lord himself failed to give him that instruction upon his conversion on the road to Demascus. Either failure is unlikely, donât you think?
I think it wise, when reading, interpreting and pondering Scripture, to avoid the trap that many Protestants fall intoâŚpicking and choosing scriptural verses to suit their own agenda (eisagesis) and failing to consider the context of that part of scripture within the context of the entire canon.
And I reject the either/or premise of Sir Knightâs question. If we are under penalty of sin mandated to do everything we (reasonably) can to protect our lives, it begs the question as to why we are not mandated, in the logic of some, to wear protective armour as well as carry a weapon, does it not?
I donât know why I keep letting you draw me back to this debate. Maybe itâs because I have an issue with false comments regarding our faith go unchallenged.
We need to look at this logically. Scripture tells us in Mark 4:34 that while Jesus spoke in parables to the crowds, He explained EVERYTHING privately to His Apostles and that explanation is ALWAYS found in scripture whenever it was recorded that the Apostles misunderstood something. If, the Apostles misunderstood and Jesus was not referring to real swords, why did He not explain that to them? This would be the only place in the four gospels where Jesus did not explain something that the Apostles misunderstood. Maybe because no explanation was needed because the Apostles understood correctly and Jesus was referring to actual swords.
Jesus was preparing the Apostles to spread the Gospel message after He is gone. Would it make sense for Jesus to see that the Apostles misunderstood something and not explain it to them since if they misunderstood, theyâll be preaching the wrong message? Not something that one would expect from the âgreat teacherâ.
This Gospel account was written many years later after the Holy Spirit opened the minds of the Aposltles to the Gospel. Does it make sense that they would explain all of Jesusâs other teaching but not this one? Highly unlikely. The only possible reason why a true explanation isnât offered is because the Apostles already understood the true meaning.
Do you expect us to believe that Jerome, who read the scriptures hundreds of years after they were written, had a better understanding of our Lordâs teaching than the Apostles who were taught by our Lord personally and had their minds opened by the Holy Spirit and even wrote those Gospels? Highly unlikely!
And if Jesus did not mean a physical sword, why did He mix it in with other physical items (
sandals, momey pouch, etc.) in that passage? Thatâs rather confusing ESPECIALLY if He didnât bother to explain it. Again, something that a âgreat teacherâ would not do.
And, again, if Jesus did not mean a physical sword, then what does this passage mean? â
⌠Sell your coat and buy a sword âŚâ â what does that mean if it isnât referring to physical items? Sell our coat and buy what?
Nope. Jesus was referring to physical weapons. Anyone who says otherwise is mistaken because it raises too many issues which can not be explained away. NONE of these issues come up if one takes the position that Jesus was talking about actual swords.
As far as Paul not having a sword, there are two possible explanations:
- *]He did have a sword but it was not recorded. Remember, the purpose of scripture was to bring the message of Christ to the world and not a detail account of how that was done.
*]The Jews were an occupied people at the time and it was atually illegal for them to own weapons. It is interesting to note that when the Apostles showed the two swords to Jesus, He did not rebuke them for having illegal weapons.
*** Continued in NEXT Post Due to Space Limitations ***
⌠Oops, somebody snuck in ahead of me 