J
Jaguar
Guest
Here is a response from a Protestant friend. Will someone help me with a response for him.
No paul did not use the septuagint nor did Jesus or any of His apostles, for the following reasons:
Jesus spoke of the jots and tittles of the Old Testament (Mat. 5:18), and this refers specifically and solely to the Hebrew language. the ST is in Greek.
Jesus referred to the Old Testament by its Hebrew division rather than by its Greek division. Following are two evidences:
In Luke 24:44 He referred to the things “which were written in THE LAW of Moses, and in THE PROPHETS, and in THE PSALMS, concerning me.” This is precisely the order of the Old Testament in Hebrew, but in the Greek Old Testament the order is the Law, the Psalms, and the Prophets, as in the English Bible.
When Jesus referred to the first and last prophets that were martyred in the Old Testament, He referred to them by the order of the Hebrew Text rather than by the order of the Greek Septuagint. “That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar” (Mat. 23:35). By this statement, the Lord Jesus charged the Jewish leaders with the deaths of the prophets throughout the Old Testament age, and He used the Hebrew canon. Abel was killed in Genesis (chapter 4) and Zacharias in 2 Chronicles (24:20-22). This follows the order of the Hebrew Old Testament, which begins with Genesis and ends with 2 Chronicles, as does the English. The Greek Septuagint, on the other hand, ends with the prophets (concluding with Malachi) and with some apocryphal books.
And, orthodox Jews did not accept the deuterocanonicals as scripture and they are not quoted from in the NT while evry other book is.
Thank you.
No paul did not use the septuagint nor did Jesus or any of His apostles, for the following reasons:
Jesus spoke of the jots and tittles of the Old Testament (Mat. 5:18), and this refers specifically and solely to the Hebrew language. the ST is in Greek.
Jesus referred to the Old Testament by its Hebrew division rather than by its Greek division. Following are two evidences:
In Luke 24:44 He referred to the things “which were written in THE LAW of Moses, and in THE PROPHETS, and in THE PSALMS, concerning me.” This is precisely the order of the Old Testament in Hebrew, but in the Greek Old Testament the order is the Law, the Psalms, and the Prophets, as in the English Bible.
When Jesus referred to the first and last prophets that were martyred in the Old Testament, He referred to them by the order of the Hebrew Text rather than by the order of the Greek Septuagint. “That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar” (Mat. 23:35). By this statement, the Lord Jesus charged the Jewish leaders with the deaths of the prophets throughout the Old Testament age, and He used the Hebrew canon. Abel was killed in Genesis (chapter 4) and Zacharias in 2 Chronicles (24:20-22). This follows the order of the Hebrew Old Testament, which begins with Genesis and ends with 2 Chronicles, as does the English. The Greek Septuagint, on the other hand, ends with the prophets (concluding with Malachi) and with some apocryphal books.
And, orthodox Jews did not accept the deuterocanonicals as scripture and they are not quoted from in the NT while evry other book is.
Thank you.