B
Ben_Masada
Guest
**Paul was not at all an apostle to the Gentiles; let alone the only one. Two percent of missionary activities among the Gentiles can hardly classify one to be an apostle to the Gentiles. 98 percent of Paul’s missionary activities were among the Jews. Since his first station in Damascus, for three years in the synagogues of the Jews, after his strategic change of mind, and until his last station in Rome, his almost only concern was to rob the Nazarenes out of their converts, and overturn entire synagogues into Christian churches. He used to act like the cuckoo bird that lay her egg in the nest of other birds so that her offspring be fed and nurtured by another bird’s mother.I’ve encountered some dispensationalists who claim that Paul is the ONLY apostle for the gentiles. In responding to them about their false claims about the Catholic Church, they deflect any scriptural evidence from the gospels by saying that they were only written for the Jews. (In fact they’ve gone so far as to say that the gospels should rightly be considered part of the Old Testament.)
This was sort of a new one on me. Anyone know how this sort of interpretation came about and how to approach it as a Catholic apologist? It seems like something that would be fairly easy to counter logically but the committment these folks have to this belief is so deep that I doubt anything (except the Holy Spirit) would get them to question it.
The real Apostle to the Gentiles was Peter, who spread synagogues almost everywhere throughout Asia Minor and Northern Africa, escpecially Alexandria. (Acts 15:7) However, credit must be given to whom credit is due. Paul, regardless of his not so cosher method, he succeeded to found Christianity in the city of Antioch, where the disciples were first called Christians, because he had spent a whole year there preaching about Jesus as Christ. (Acts 11:26) And from there, throughout Asia Minor, wherever there was a Nazarene synagogue he would be operating…**