R
Ron_Conte
Guest
The CCC does not really address the issue.
Because we don’t know what the term “error” means, or when to apply it and the pope’s words are of no help.What if Pope Benedict issued a document saying the following:
“Divine inspiration extends to every part of the Bible without the slightest exception, and that no error can occur in the inspired text…”
Would the matter not be settled?
But Pope Benedict did issue a document with those exact words. So why is this still treated as an open question?
The nihil obstat and imprimatur are often granted when they should not be.Here is one thing I would like to see explained: Clearly the NAB notes are compatible with the Catholic teaching on the inerrancy of the Bible, as they have a nihil obstat and imprimatur, not to mention that they are posted on the Vatican website. I personally have a hard time reconciling this, and I would like to see the inerrancy teaching clarified as to why they are compatible, and find out exactly just how far are Catholics allowed to deviate from the plain understanding of the Biblical texts.
The imprimatur can be revoked if it is found to be given in error. The NAB is the bible used in American services so I would think the comments have been scrutinized. This is not some backwater book. I think it’s unlikely that we will see that imprimatur revoked.The nihil obstat and imprimatur are often granted when they should not be.
The church doesn’t do this though. It never tells anyone that something in the bible isn’t true. Yes it allows people to believe that perhaps Noah didn’t really load all the animals on the ark. However the church never said one would be a heretic if they believed Noah in fact loaded all the animals on the ark. The church leaves the matter open. I do not hope and pray that the church would call people who believe the literal story of Noah heretics. I’m not sure what motivates others to hope the church closes the door on those who wonder about difficulties that have nothing to do with salvation.There are pastoral issues on both sides of the debate. On the one side, you have people who have believed in the Bible literally all their life, and are now being told by Catholic biblical scholars, with the approval of the Catholic Church, that much of what they believed in isn’t true. These people sometimes have a crisis of faith, wonder why they should believe in any part of the Bible anymore, and can end up leaving the Church.
I think the answer is easy. Don’t close either group out of the church. Continue to say what Vatican 2 and the Catechism say: Scripture is inerrant in what it says for the sake of our salvation. If people accept that I don’t see why we would need to declare them heretics regardless of how they come down on other issues.On the other side, you run the risk of having people not being able to accept the Catholic Church in the first place because they cannot believe in Noah’s ark or Herod’s slaughter or some other such thing that has been deemed to be mandatory due to the dogma of biblical inerrancy. The PBC definitely has a delicate balancing act to perform when it deals with this issue.
Yes, and no.The opinion that Scripture contains errors on any subject has already been condemned.
I don’t see that as contradicting previous Church teaching, though I recognize some might. I do see it as saying clearly that Scripture is inerrant regarding “that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to the Sacred Scriptures.” That might be a problem for some, if the Bible does not necessarily contain biological, geological, archaeological etc. truths, but I don’t think it is and it doesn’t seem to be for the Church.The inspired books teach the truth. "Since therefore all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture firmly, faithfully, and without error teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to the Sacred Scriptures.
I guess we will agree to disagree on this. It may depend on what you you think is being taught. If you are saying it has always been required that all catholics believe every individual phrase of scripture is true - and not just part of a larger truth - I would say there are few that have been taught less definitively or that are less fundemental to Catholic Faith.There are few other teachings that have been taught more definitively, or that are more fundamental to the Catholic Faith.
You raise some interesting questions. From the studying I’ve done of the authoritative papal documents on the subject and the early Church fathers, it seems the Church’s approach is to view the Scriptures as inerrant pertaining to what the sacred author intended to communicate. The correct understanding of that intended message would be inerrant. The Church has also laid out safeguards as to how we can come to that understanding. Here is a relevant text below from Pope Leo XIII’s encyclical pertaining to the interpretation of Scripture. Also Pope Benedict’s address to the PBC, which Pete linked to earlier on this thread, also lays out the Church’s approach as well.I think there is an ambiguity in this topic
- is the total inerrancy of those chapters
It’s not the texts that claim inerrancy; nor do they say anything about how they are to be put together in such a way as to yield a result which allows them to be described as inerrant. Inerrancy is a theological construction for derscribing how they are related - it is not an analysis of what they mean. The notion of inerrancy is like a “fence round the Torah”, not something required by what is in the Torah. AFAICS.
- within the text, in what is said
- “beyond” the text - at a meta-textual level - in what they are used for saying
Does the Church mean:
If they are not asserting what the Church thinks they are asserting, the time may come when what the text is understood to mean changes - indeed, it’s happened already:
- what the texts say, is totally inerrant - or
- what the Church understands them to mean by what they say, is totally inerrant ?
and
- an inerrant Bible that inerrantly asserts as a fact that the really-existing man Methuselah attained the age of 969 years
can both be totally inerrant - but the content of the belief in total inerrancy is different, because the sense the text bears is taken to be different. Only the result - that is, the assertion of the total inerrancy of the Bible - is the same.
- an inerrant Bible that is understood not to be asserting that Methuselah & his age are really existent, but serve a completely different purpose in the Bible
Furthermore - how can it be said of a text that makes no assertion, that it is, or is not, in error ? Error presupposes a judgement by the intellect - a mistaken one. It presupposes that something not the case, has been judged to be the case in the very sense in which it is not. So, what of those parts of the Bible in which no such judgement is made ? How do categories such as error, & the absence of it, apply to them ? Or - does the dogma of inerrancy apply only to those parts of the Bible in which such judgements are made & such categories applied ?It would be most interesting to know…
So far as I understand your post I agree with it. Let’s assume the standard definition of truth: A claim/statement is “true” if and only if it accords with reality.Defining Biblical inerrancy could be a massive headache; especially if the text is to be inerrant.
Hence my suggestion about the possibility that inerrancy might be meta-textual, and not textual. How can one speak of an inerrant book, if the content of the book is not inerrant ? But to be inerrant, there has to be a something of which the quality of inerrancy can be predicated: doctrines about the Bible need a Bible for them to be about. And if entities within the Bible - ancient Patriarchs, events, places, & so on, are judged at one time to be real, & later, not to be real, the meaning of the “bearer” of inerrancy (in this case, the Bible or part or parts of it) has changed: so the thing of which inerrancy is predicated changes; so the meaning of inerrancy changes in its turn. So - what is the locus, or the “bearer”, of inerrancy ? Of what exactly is it predicated, by the Church which desires this doctrine to be believed ? The Church ought to be able to know what it means by its own teaching. Or not ? But if not - why not
?