Of course. However, you have heard of King Herod, haven’t you? The Jews were more intimately familiar with the language of royalty and its courts than we Americans.
Good point, you are aware that Herod wasn’t actually a Hebrew king and that the jews of his day resented his rule almost as much as roman rule, so while they would have been familiar with royalty in general, it can’t be said that this would given them clear insight into the Davidic kingdom, any more than my experience of living in a constitutional monarchy (Canada).
As for the conclusions of the Protestant scholars, sure…they HAVE to come to different conclusions; otherwise, they would be CATHOLIC scholars. At which point, we have come back around to where I joined this discussion back in post #96.
Are you implying that they lack academic integrity and would falsify their work? If so, I don’t understand why you would be so quick to want to claim them for your side.
If you acknowledge that their interpretations are the honest result of their research and study, then you understand my point that identifying Peter as the rock isn’t a slam dunk for the catholic position and more evidence is required.
This is less certain, isn’t it? If God has ordained these offices (and we both have in mind the same verse from Paul, don’t we?) then at what point did those offices pass out of existence. Apostle when the last died, but Bishop? Prophet? Pastor and teacher?
Actually we see some identified as apostles in the New Testament besides Paul and the 12, such as Barnabas (Acts 14:14) so there were additional apostles, yet this office stopped being used at some point, just like prophet (unless you can provide examples of these being used formally after the 1st 2 centuries), even though we see them in Acts (Agabus and the daughters of Philip) and documents like the didache. So there is no automatic continuation of an office because it appears in Acts. These offices disappeared at some point since we find the catholic church arguing that they have ended (although Tertullian argues against the catholic hierarchy of his day that they are wrong for not recognizing these offices).
I’m confused by your “If” regarding the offices, are you suggesting Paul was mistaken in Ephesians or that these aren’t offices and there is another understanding of Ephesians 2:20 and chapter 4?
I cited Joseph under Pharoah as well as Eliakim in Isaiah. Wouldn’t the Jews have been somewhat familiar with those two at the least? Shouldn’t YOU be, also?
While you pose a rhetorical question to advance your argument, all it would take to add weight to your argument is an early Christian reference where Peter is compared to Eliakim or Jesus is compared to Pharaoh or Peter to Joseph. I’ve found
no evidence of the latter analogy in my early church readings. I agree that Jews would have had a degree of familiarity with these names, but whether that supports your argument that they would have made an immediate connection to them when hearing Matt 16 isn’t proven.
I’m wondering what justification you gave yourself for assuming that I’m not familiar with both of these individuals, and how you feel it strengthens your argument.
Don’t the examples of the replacement of Eliakim and the election of Matthias after the death of Judas Iscariot speak to this?
You claim that we Catholics are reading too much into this. Wouldn’t it be more accurate that you’re having to explain away the plain and obvious meaning of the text in Matthew 16:18?
Let me ask it another way: If Jesus is not referring to Is. 22:22 in Matthew 16:18, why did He bother referencing keys AT ALL when he could have conveyed the same authority WITHOUT THAT IMAGE as He did in Matthew 18?
Unfortunately, I just got a phone call and have to cut this short. I will try to return to the rest of your post (below) later. Thanks for your patience.
As I’ve said before whether Jesus is referencing Isaiah (and you’ve provided no evidence that the early church thought he was) or not, it doesn’t follow that his intended meaning was the one that you are promoting, as a variety of other interpretations have been given by the scholars you cite who do accept that connection. Whether I accept the Isaiah connection or not, that next step needs to take place. Accepting the Isaiah does nothing to contradict the interpretation I’ve put forward for Matt 16:19, so that’s why I’ve not focussed on it, except to respond when you bring it up.
If you want to argue that your interpretation of Peter’s role is the correct one to take from the passage, there needs to be more supporting evidence. I’ve mentioned Cullman’s book since you brought it up and he has a
very strong section on why the catholic understanding of Peter’s role post Matt 16 isn’t the best fit for the evidence. I encourage you to read it after you finish your current book and perhaps his arguments and evidence will help you to understand why others can come to honestly differing conclusions to yours regarding Peter and his role.