Hi Telstar;I would strongly disagree with the objections made in regards to the KJV,it could be said of any version there was hidden reason and criticism in regards to why such a verse is put in a certain way.Indeed it was your own Bernard of Clairvaux ( greatly revered translator and expositor- to the pontif-)who was criticised by Augustine of Hippo,for not accurately rendering word for word in translation,but rather the sense of the passage ought not to have been given the priority over the accuracy of the word in the translation process.
The Textus receptus dates further back than Henry the eighth incidentally ;and in its original format ,is still available for comparison today also.
Hi, Bernard.
“
St. Bernard of Clairvaux:
Born in 1090, at Fontaines, near Dijon, France; died at Clairvaux, 21 August, 1153.”
“
:St. Augustine of Hippo
Augustine was born at Tagaste on 13 November, 354.”
I don’t think St. Augustine of Hippo ever criticized St. Bernard of Clairvaux about anything, so I’m not sure what or who you’re referring to. Could you, please, post something (maybe a link) I can read it from?
The KJV does ,I would also argue ,greatly esteem the apostle Peter ,who was greatly loved by Jesus ,but this is in the context of 12 apostles ,all chosen by one Christ.
I’m not saying the KJV was disrespectful of Peter, but that the translators had good reason to change the wording in some passages in order to downplay Peter’s significance to foster their reason for breaking away from the Pope and the Catholic Church. If their translations weren’t as clear-cut, and they avoided giving him any prominence in their preaching, Peter could easily be seen as just another Apostle, as your and others’ examples show.
The Catholic translation in the DR (the Catholic standard for centuries) was not based solely on the purely literal (mechanical) translation of the words, but also by the understanding of the context in which it had always been used in the past. When there was a conflict, the context that had been handed down from the Apostles influenced the words chosen to be used in the translation. Through the help of the Holy Ghost, the truth remained intact, which was one of the main reasons God sent Him to the Apostles (and Church) in the first place, so the truth would
never be lost.
With all due respect to Peter( for they were all scattered,and fled "All ye shall be offended"Matt26:31) Jesus foreknowledge of Peter also ,as you will know,included a threefold denial that he even new Jesus .
Was then also your ‘rock’?
See my response to FKB, above. Yes, he was.
Finally if you look closely at John chapter 1 as a whole and verse 42 in particular ,you will notice that the day before Andrew( a disciple of the baptist) shows and brings Peter to "Christ’,Andrew is standing with John the Baptist ,who is apparently a free man.
But in Mark chapter one,verse 14 “Now after that John was put in prison,Jesus came into Galilee”
Why is this significant? Because immediately after Peter meets Jesus in John 1:42,we see Jesus move on :
“the day following Jesus would go into Galilee,and findeth Philip,and saith unto him Follow me”(verse 43)
But this is only the day after Andrew,Peter’s brother,stood along side a free John the Baptist ;
According to Marks gospel Jesus doesn’t command Peter and the other ‘fishers’ to leave their nets and follow him until after John has been put in prison.
There are several places where the Gospel writers may have a slightly different recollection of the events, like the order in which they occurred, but for the most part, they’re not detrimental to the principal Gospel message. We have to remember that many of these things were only written down years after the events, and the writers were human beings. Those small differences are not a real problem because they don’t blatantly contradict
what Jesus taught. If they did, then, there would be a problem.