C
Crumpy
Guest
It’s an odd statement, it is, in paragraph 108 of the Catechism of the Catholic Church.
It says that we, Catholics, are NOT “people of the book.” Rather we are people of the living Word of God
So, why did the Bishops of the world “go negative” in this paragraph? Who are they arguing with?
I’m reading a Jewish Publication Society Commentary on the Torah: Deuteronomy written by Jeffrey Tigay.
This contains an essay on the Jewish interpretation of Deuteronomy 31:10ff, in which Moses writes down his instruction for the Israelite people, giving them the direction to read this instruction to the people every seven years.
He points out that it was “Arabs” in the middle ages who, commenting on this command of Moses, referred to Jews and Christians as “people(s) of the book.”
So, the Catholic Church takes exception to this idea, that we are slaves to the “dead letter” of the book (Bible), and asserts instead that we are committed to the living Word of the Scriptures, reading them as we do, invoking the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.
Nonetheless, the Jews are proud of the appellation People of the Book, as much as they are committed to fulfilling the direction of Moses (under the inspiration of God). Again, the scripture calls for reading it to the people every seven years. In practice, the Jews used to read the Torah once a year, and now have the current practice of reading it on a three-year cycle.
Interestingly, Tigay remarks that Moses’ command is to the people. It’s not specifically or exclusively addressed to the Jewish priests. SO…this is his explanation for the fact that the scripture authority in Judaism resides in non-priests, the rabbis.
I just wrote a post yesterday, alleging that the development of Jewish rabbinism was not Biblical. So, today I learned of the claim that rabbinic Judaism is the quintessential response to Moses’ statement in Deuteronomy.
It says that we, Catholics, are NOT “people of the book.” Rather we are people of the living Word of God
So, why did the Bishops of the world “go negative” in this paragraph? Who are they arguing with?
I’m reading a Jewish Publication Society Commentary on the Torah: Deuteronomy written by Jeffrey Tigay.
This contains an essay on the Jewish interpretation of Deuteronomy 31:10ff, in which Moses writes down his instruction for the Israelite people, giving them the direction to read this instruction to the people every seven years.
He points out that it was “Arabs” in the middle ages who, commenting on this command of Moses, referred to Jews and Christians as “people(s) of the book.”
So, the Catholic Church takes exception to this idea, that we are slaves to the “dead letter” of the book (Bible), and asserts instead that we are committed to the living Word of the Scriptures, reading them as we do, invoking the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.
Nonetheless, the Jews are proud of the appellation People of the Book, as much as they are committed to fulfilling the direction of Moses (under the inspiration of God). Again, the scripture calls for reading it to the people every seven years. In practice, the Jews used to read the Torah once a year, and now have the current practice of reading it on a three-year cycle.
Interestingly, Tigay remarks that Moses’ command is to the people. It’s not specifically or exclusively addressed to the Jewish priests. SO…this is his explanation for the fact that the scripture authority in Judaism resides in non-priests, the rabbis.
I just wrote a post yesterday, alleging that the development of Jewish rabbinism was not Biblical. So, today I learned of the claim that rabbinic Judaism is the quintessential response to Moses’ statement in Deuteronomy.