I’ve never argued that the Roman Rite is better than the Byzantine Rite, or any Rite is better than another. However, changes within a Rite can be good or bad, and some changes can be organic while others are not.
In the Roman Rite, for around 1400 years or so, the tradition was a
single Eucharistic Prayer, known as the Roman Canon. But 40 years ago, a model for the Eucharistic Prayer said by a Bishop at his ordination (the Hippolytan canon) was wrenched out of antiquity and updated and plugged into the Roman Rite. It had not been used in our Church for over a millenium, if indeed it had been used at all. It pales in comparison to the Roman Canon. On top of that, two other Eucharistic Prayers were invented. And then three for children. And then two for reconciliation. And then four in Switzerland. All
13 Eucharistic Prayers are in the 3rd typical edition of the Roman Missal. We went from
one prayer to
thirteen in less than a decade, and not in an organic fashion.
There was also not the optional of which Penitential Rite to use… the
Confiteor was used, followed by the
Kyrie. Today, the Confiteor is often not used, and a hybrid
Kyrie that appears to be adopted from the Eastern Rites is often used instead. That wasn’t the Roman tradition.
I would argue that some of the changes to the Mass (and some of the changes imposed upon the Eastern Rites, the “latinization” of them) was an attempt at unifying the Rites into one, and I don’t think it was a wise move (neither during/after the council or even before it, as some popes had done).
And another thing about comparing them… if the Ordinary Form isn’t “better” than the Extraordinary Form (or is only
subjectively better), then doesn’t that make the reform that produced it a failure? If there was something in the 1962 liturgy that needed reforming, and yet we cannot say that the liturgy of today is
better than the 1962 liturgy, then what have we gained? Why should it have been changed at all? I think there are things in the 1962 liturgy that need reforming; I also think there are certainly things in the 1969/2002 liturgy that need reforming, but the direction of this reform is mostly towards the traditional liturgy of the Church.
So then, my point: if a Catholic says that the EF and the OF are not better or worse than one another, why doesn’t that Catholic attend both forms? Why are they showing (exclusive) preference to one form over another? I would surmise it comes down to a subjective quality (personal feeling) over an objective quality (intrinsic character), and if the two forms of Mass are really equal, then that person is simply not being fair.