I’m bad at bible abbrevations but I have the New American version and it says “Hail favored one”. Belive me, I took a pen to Luke 1:28. I also have the New Testament in Latin, where Luke 1:28 IS translated correctly. Translating the bible into English was one of the worst things that ever happened, imo.Yes, that is even a more revealing translation. My quote was taken from NIV, and the translation seems weak.
“Hail favored one…” does not contradict “Hail, full of grace…” or “you are are highly favored”. They all essentially say the same thing: Mary was highly favored by God.I’m bad at bible abbrevations but I have the New American version and it says “Hail favored one”. Belive me, I took a pen to Luke 1:28. I also have the New Testament in Latin, where Luke 1:28 IS translated correctly. Translating the bible into English was one of the worst things that ever happened, imo.
Joseph’s marriage was legal and binding. Joseph would still have had to divorce Mary to dissolve the marriage. Joseph was not ordered to get a divorce, he was told “fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife,”.No, not the earthly sence.
But Mary is the Spouse of the Spirit because she is the Mother of the Son. Through the Spirit she concieved the Son, so she became the Spouse to God by the Conception of their son. She wasn’t exactly married to Joseph ethier, she was betrothed, which was only the first step in a Jewish marriage. They did not co-inhabit and therefore could not be husband and wife. Joseph was her husband in name only. Her true spouse is the holy spirit.
I did not say it wasn’t legal, only that it was not complete.Joseph’s marriage was legal and binding. Joseph would still have had to divorce Mary to dissolve the marriage. Joseph was not ordered to get a divorce, he was told “fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife,”.
“And Joseph rising up from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took unto him his wife.” (Mat 1:24"
That is not what was written in Luke.:banghead: No, no, no, NO! The angel told her “Hail full of grace” more techinquely he said “Hail my queen, who has been and continues to be graced.”.
It’s not there because the english is mistranslated. The greek passage says this “Chaire, Kecharitomene”That is not what was written in Luke.
The word full is not there.
Gabriel did not call her “my queen”
etc.
REVELATION22:18, 19
2 Peter 3:16
2 Ti 4:3
Acts 17:10-12
Then please tell us: What is written in Luke 1:28? And what are you trying to disprove with your translation of Luke 1:28? Granting that Gabriel did not call her queen. Then what if Gabriel did not call her queen? Would that make Mama Mary not mother of Jesus, the King?That is not what was written in Luke.
The word full is not there.
Gabriel did not call her “my queen”
etc.
Joseph was not commanded to divorce Mary because divorce is contrary to what God ordained regarding marriage “from the beginning”. Besides, the Holy Spirit was not marrying Mary. The power of God would only “overshadow” her. There could not be an adultery either, because the Holy Spirit did not have sex with Mama Mary.Joseph’s marriage was legal and binding. Joseph would still have had to divorce Mary to dissolve the marriage. Joseph was not ordered to get a divorce, he was told “fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife,”.
“And Joseph rising up from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took unto him his wife.” (Mat 1:24"
Don’t be ridiculous. But I might ask you why add to the words? Will that make Mary any greater in God’s eye?Then please tell us: What is written in Luke 1:28? And what are you trying to disprove with your translation of Luke 1:28? Granting that Gabriel did not call her queen. Then what if Gabriel did not call her queen? Would that make Mama Mary not mother of Jesus, the King?
I agree completely. But why tell me? Tell the poster who said Mary is God’s wife.Joseph was not commanded to divorce Mary because divorce is contrary to what God ordained regarding marriage “from the beginning”. Besides, the Holy Spirit was not marrying Mary. The power of God would only “overshadow” her. There could not be an adultery either, because the Holy Spirit did not have sex with Mama Mary.
You are mistaken. It was a common greeting as demonstrated in James:It’s not there because the english is mistranslated. The greek passage says this “Chaire, Kecharitomene”
Chaire means Hail but is only reserved for royalty. So yes, when Gabriel greeted Mary he was greeting her as his queen even if he didn’t explicitly say “my queen” he ment it by hailing her with a royal greeting.
Kecharitomeme mean to be graced but it’s in the past-prefect tense. It means literaly “having been and continueing to be graced” in short “full of grace”
The only place it appears in the ENGLISH bible. I already told you the english is mistranslated. The bible was translated into english from Latin and Greek. Since both the Greek and Latin passages mean “Full of Grace” your precious english version is incorrect.You are mistaken. It was a common greeting as demonstrated in James:
Jam 1:1 ¶ James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
The only place “Full of Grace” appears in the NT is John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
What words were added? Why don’t you just show here how Luke 1:28 appear in your favorite bible version? Do you think God would choose her if she was not more Blessed in His eyes than all the rest?Don’t be ridiculous. But I might ask you why add to the words? Will that make Mary any greater in God’s eye?
The only place it appears in the ENGLISH bible. I already told you the english is mistranslated. The bible was translated into english from Latin and Greek. Since both the Greek and Latin passages mean “Full of Grace” your precious english version is incorrect./QUOTE]
Jerome added “full” when he translated the Greek to Latin. The English Catholic Bible is translated from the Latin - not the Greek. Thus a translation from a translation promotes a continuing and growing departure from the original.
Goth_Catholic;3113787:
You better re-check.and I just checked James 1:1 the word he uses is not the same as Gabriel’s.
It is also the same word used in Act 15:23: “And they wrote [letters] by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren [send] greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:”
Why don’t I use your favorite version? The Douay Rheims says:What words were added? Why don’t you just show here how Luke 1:28 appear in your favorite bible version? Do you think God would choose her if she was not more Blessed in His eyes than all the rest?
"Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear!" (Luke 1:42) And “From now on all generations will call me blessed…” (Luke 1:48)
And your Douay Rheims version has already been corrected once to match what mine says.… your precious english version is incorrect.
I see. So it is the word “queen” that was added in Luke 1:28. OK. The word queen does not also appear in Luke 1:28 of NIV, the bible that I have here. But in Revelation 12:1 the woman had a crown of 12 stars on her head. Said woman, in verse 5, gave birth to a son, a male child , who will rule all the nations with an iron scepter. Well, apparently, this has nothing to do with virginity. I wonder why the word queen should be an issue here.Why don’t I use your favorite version? The Douay Rheims says:
28 And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
Goth_Catholic said "more techinquely he said “Hail my queen”
Where do you see Gabreil calling her “queen”?
Jerome added the word “full” and now Catholics making further the assumptions saying the word “queen” must logically follow. Human logic is no way to understand God.
The woman in Rev 12: is the nation of Israel. The 12 stars are the 12 tribes of Israel. The 12 tribes of Israel did not descend from Mary. The woman in Rev 12 gives birth in pain.I see. So it is the word “queen” that was added in Luke 1:28. OK. The word queen does not also appear in Luke 1:28 of NIV, the bible that I have here. But in Revelation 12:1 the woman had a crown of 12 stars on her head. Said woman, in verse 5, gave birth to a son, a male child , who will rule all the nations with an iron scepter. Well, apparently, this has nothing to do with virginity. I wonder why the word queen should be an issue here.
I still could not see how this is connected with Mary’s perpetual virginity.The woman in Rev 12: is the nation of Israel. The 12 stars are the 12 tribes of Israel. The 12 tribes of Israel did not descend from Mary. The woman in Rev 12 gives birth in pain.
Without specifically stating Mary was a Virgin, the Bible is very clear on this point.
Why is the term “queen of heaven” an issue for me?
Look up all references to queen in your Bible - then you will know. It is insulting. The term “queen of heaven” is never, ever mentioned in a positive content that I have seen.
Oh… I misunderstood what you were asking.I still could not see how this is connected with Mary’s perpetual virginity.