K
KATA_LOUKAN
Guest
I recently have been discussing Catholicism with a Protestant Preacher, and the topic of discussion turned to the papacy.
He talks of a “preponderance” of evidence against Peter as pope.
Take, for instance, Peter’s position on circumcision. How could a man who was infallible try to propagate this heretical doctrine?
He talks of a “preponderance” of evidence against Peter as pope.
Take, for instance, Peter’s position on circumcision. How could a man who was infallible try to propagate this heretical doctrine?