Does anyone here happen to know Greek so that I can directly address his comments on the gender issue of Petros/petra (which seems obviously bunk from the context alone) and then also the Greek of “soi” so that I can prove that the keys were given to Peter alone?
As of now, I’m planning on adding in that the Early Church Fathers spoke Greek
and understood the culture and context of the verse better than we can hope to today, and that is a strong testimony to the true meaning.
Also, as a side question: Since Matthew was likely written in Aramaic, does that mean that only the Aramaic original copy can be said to be inerrant? Or would the Greek copy that was used in the New Testament also definitely be inerrant? My point isn’t that the Greek version has errors, but simply that it’s ideal to look at the original language to understand the meaning best.
Thanks,
Chris**
I have earlier posted (post 79) links to some of my posts in earlier discussion regarding this question but I want to add two more from the same thread
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7366503&postcount=170
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7350375&postcount=30