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Friends,
A main Catholic apologetic point is that the Church Fathers interpret Matthew 16:18ff in a supremacist Petrine Roman sense. In reality, there was a very big split right down the middle about this - as an objective reading of the sources will show. I’m not sure the Fathers understood the fulness of what was meant by our Lord. They certainly disagreed about it.
I’ve had many problems believing that the Popes of Rome are special enough to warrant the privileges we grant them. I don’t know if anyone here is aware of Gregory the Great’s “there is no universal bishop” letter (here), and his less-well-known letter where he says that Alexandria, Antioch, and Rome all form one Chair of Peter - upon which three bishops sit (here). This is a conciliar, episcopal vision of the Church. It seems to clash violently with what we understand about the Papacy today.
Some Orthodox have argued that papal supremacy came from a misguided understanding of what it means to be “Peter” - influenced by Feudalism. Essentially, they say that modern Roman Catholicism emerged because of the collapse of Byzantium’s moderating influence on the West. Once the Popes became able to crown kings and emperors to protect themselves, it “went to their head”. It seems like a natural and plausible explanation…
Combine Gregory’s convictions with the change in the attitudes of Popes over the centuries, and something strange seems to emerge. Between the days when they were under the Byzantine Emperors, vs. the days that they crowned the Frankish Emperors, the Popes “changed” somehow. It’s hard to put my finger on it. Nicholas I was a very different pope - with very different conceptions of authority - compared with Gregory I. One was iron-fisted, whereas the other insisted that there isn’t even any such thing as a universal pope. Which one was correct?
A main Catholic apologetic point is that the Church Fathers interpret Matthew 16:18ff in a supremacist Petrine Roman sense. In reality, there was a very big split right down the middle about this - as an objective reading of the sources will show. I’m not sure the Fathers understood the fulness of what was meant by our Lord. They certainly disagreed about it.
I’ve had many problems believing that the Popes of Rome are special enough to warrant the privileges we grant them. I don’t know if anyone here is aware of Gregory the Great’s “there is no universal bishop” letter (here), and his less-well-known letter where he says that Alexandria, Antioch, and Rome all form one Chair of Peter - upon which three bishops sit (here). This is a conciliar, episcopal vision of the Church. It seems to clash violently with what we understand about the Papacy today.
Some Orthodox have argued that papal supremacy came from a misguided understanding of what it means to be “Peter” - influenced by Feudalism. Essentially, they say that modern Roman Catholicism emerged because of the collapse of Byzantium’s moderating influence on the West. Once the Popes became able to crown kings and emperors to protect themselves, it “went to their head”. It seems like a natural and plausible explanation…
Combine Gregory’s convictions with the change in the attitudes of Popes over the centuries, and something strange seems to emerge. Between the days when they were under the Byzantine Emperors, vs. the days that they crowned the Frankish Emperors, the Popes “changed” somehow. It’s hard to put my finger on it. Nicholas I was a very different pope - with very different conceptions of authority - compared with Gregory I. One was iron-fisted, whereas the other insisted that there isn’t even any such thing as a universal pope. Which one was correct?