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praestat_fides
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At the Jerusalem Council, it was James not Peter who made the final decision in regards to the issues at hand with the Gentiles. How can this be if Peter was the first Pope as the RCC teaches?
In the sixties Peter and Linus were both living in Rome. When Peter was martyred, most probably in 64, Linus was chosen as his replacement. According to Irinaeus, he was the same Linus mentioned by Paul in 2 Tim 4:21.Does anyone know if Linus, the 2nd Pope, replaced Jame when he was killed, or did Linus replace Peter at his death?
The Greek verb κρίνω means specifically to distinguish, to approve, to condemn, to decide on a disputed matter, and hence to judge. If the writer of Acts had intended to depict St. James as merely giving an opinion he would have used some expression like “δοκει εμοι”The article found here in Catholic Answers Magazine: Was James the Real Leader of the Early Church? covers this in much better context than I can do here; however, let me take a stab at it too…
There is no contradiction.
James is only expressing his position in a council meeting that supports the position already proposed by Peter.
Anyway to the point:
First, it was a council; each of the Apostles would have had their voice herd, and the council was meeting to consider the information brought before them by Paul and Barnabas.
Second Acts 15:7-11, Peter makes the first move to release the Gentiles of the circumcision and other requirements that we read about in the earlier text and subsequently in Acts15:22 and beyond.
Third, in Acts15:13, when James speaks up,
James answered, saying: Men, brethren, hear me. [14] Simon hath related how God first visited to take of the Gentiles a people to his name…
Remember here, “Simon” who is “Peter”… thus, James is talking in support of Peter’s position, and then supports that position with the words of the prophets…
James, then says… in “his judgment”
For which cause I judge that they, who from among the Gentiles are converted to God, are not to be disquieted
which could have been written… “it is my opinion” that they (the council) make their recommendations to the Church in Antioch. Many people have never heard the phrase “I judge” or “I reckon” used in common speech; however, I’ve heard it used by many older people to mean that in their “learned” opinion that something is “this” or “that”
- Keep in mind, the Apostles, as do our Bishops now, did things as a committee, Peter was the head of that committee and as such, would have listened to the other members of that committee and their “judgments.” Such an act would not have weakened his position as first amongst the Apostles.
- There is a book entitled *Pilgrim Church: A Popular History of Catholic Christianity * by William J. Bausch, Carol Ann Cannon, Robert E. Obach that I would recommend you looking for at your local library or even the retail or online book stores. It will open your eyes to the events of the early Church. It’s a book that an older Deacon recommend as I discern if I should go in to the Deaconate program.
The final decree of the Council went out in the name of all the Apostles and other clergy–that was the final say (Acts 15:22-29). Various subsequent Church councils have acted the same. For example, see the Council of Chalcedon, where St. Leo delivered his Tome, and then the Council received it as coming from the mouth of Peter and made its decrees according to the truth contained in it.At the Jerusalem Council, it was James not Peter who made the final decision in regards to the issues at hand with the Gentiles. How can this be if Peter was the first Pope as the RCC teaches?
Barnes’ Notes on the Whole BibleThe Greek verb κρίνω means specifically to distinguish, to approve, to condemn, to decide on a disputed matter, and hence to judge. If the writer of Acts had intended to depict St. James as merely giving an opinion he would have used some expression like “δοκει εμοι”
short and to the point.This is no surprise at all, since the Church still works the same way today.
Peter issued the doctrinal definition. That’s what Popes do. In today’s terms, he issued what would be a primitive Apostolic Constitution or Bull.
James issued the disciplinary decree. That’s what Congregations do. In other words, he issued an Instruction.
No problems whatsoever.
that was funnyPeter was a guest. James was the Bishop of Jerusalem. James was the host. It is considered extremely impolite for a guest to undermine the authority of his host by making a statement of policy. The host gets to do that.
Remember the Mexican president lecturing Barak Obama on US Policy while on US soil and what an uproar that caused? Same thing.
-Tim-
Genesis 3:15?short and to the point.
But let’s not forget, Genesis315 rightly points out , the final course of action was issued by the council, not by James.
James was Bishop of Jerusalem. Peter was in Jerusalem.Others have given good answers. I’d only add that I’d stress that one should consider this against all of Holy Scripture. It is quite clear that the Apostles had a hierarchy. Peter, James, and John were a subgroup with Peter as the leader of all of the Apostles. He spoke for them and was given a special charge. When you look at this particular event you need to keep in mind all of the evidence. Can you reconcile what is written with the other evidence that Peter has an authority over all the Apostles? Yes you can as others have pointed out.
But Peter did…even prior to the Council…beginning in Acts 10 and concluding in Acts 11:James was Bishop of Jerusalem. Peter was in Jerusalem.
Peter would never make a policy statement while in another bishop’s jurisdiction.
This is basic political protocol and has been observed throughout history. We see Pilate and Herod doing the same thing.
And when he learned that he belonged to Herod’s jurisdiction, he sent him over to Herod, who was himself in Jerusalem at that time. (Luke 23:7)
-Tim-
Peter had made the decision in Acts 10 and 11 prior to the Council.At the Jerusalem Council, it was James not Peter who made the final decision in regards to the issues at hand with the Gentiles. How can this be if Peter was the first Pope as the RCC teaches?
Peter’w words in Acts 11 and 15:James was Bishop of Jerusalem. Peter was in Jerusalem.
Peter would never make a policy statement while in another bishop’s jurisdiction.
This is basic political protocol and has been observed throughout history. We see Pilate and Herod doing the same thing.
And when he learned that he belonged to Herod’s jurisdiction, he sent him over to Herod, who was himself in Jerusalem at that time. (Luke 23:7)
-Tim-