Peter's Papacy....Oneness

  • Thread starter Thread starter teeboy
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
T

teeboy

Guest
Peter was Paul’s bishop.

Paul, in one letter, wrote that it was better not to have kids.

Peter had kids.

Paul’s letter is part of the Vulgate, which was promulgated by a bishop after Peter’s death.

Is this not evidence of the formation of the Church?

Oneness is found in letters of Jude and James.
 
Peter was Paul’s bishop.

Paul, in one letter, wrote that it was better not to have kids.

Peter had kids.

Paul’s letter is part of the Vulgate, which was promulgated by a bishop after Peter’s death.

Is this not evidence of the formation of the Church?

Oneness is found in letters of Jude and James.
  1. Where does the Bible say it is better to not have kids?
  2. Where does the Bible say Peter had kids? Peter’s mother-in-law is mentioned but his wife is never mentioned. She may have died in childbirth.
  3. The Church was formed by Jesus in Matt 16:18. The Vulgate has nothing to do with it. The Vulgate is merely a Latin translation of the Bible which was not needed in Peter’s time since Greek, not Latin, was the lingua franca of the time.
  4. When you say “oneness” are you referring to the heresy that denies the triune nature of God as taught in the Bible and promulgated by the true church? If not, please explain.
 
Peter was Paul’s bishop.
No he was not. Paul operated out of Antioch even at the time when Peter was in Jerusalem. At the time of the Council of Jerusalem, the Church of Antioch sent Paul and Barnabas to Jerusalem where they were met by the elders, which included the Apostles. Paul never reported to Peter as his bishop.
 
  1. Where does the Bible say it is better to not have kids?
  2. Where does the Bible say Peter had kids? Peter’s mother-in-law is mentioned but his wife is never mentioned. She may have died in childbirth.
  3. The Church was formed by Jesus in Matt 16:18. The Vulgate has nothing to do with it. The Vulgate is merely a Latin translation of the Bible which was not needed in Peter’s time since Greek, not Latin, was the lingua franca of the time.
  4. When you say “oneness” are you referring to the heresy that denies the triune nature of God as taught in the Bible and promulgated by the true church? If not, please explain.
I apologize. I meant Paul says it is better to not be married. Peter was married.

The point about the Vulgate confirms that the Catholic Church included the reference about better to not be married, yet Peter was married, and a bishop, at this time, can’t be married in 350 ad.

It is said in the dictionary on this site that his wife wss martyred. Was this before he was elected bishop? We know in Acts that elections were taking place. The election of Stephen comes to mind.
 
  1. Where does the Bible say it is better to not have kids?
  2. Where does the Bible say Peter had kids? Peter’s mother-in-law is mentioned but his wife is never mentioned. She may have died in childbirth.
  3. The Church was formed by Jesus in Matt 16:18. The Vulgate has nothing to do with it. The Vulgate is merely a Latin translation of the Bible which was not needed in Peter’s time since Greek, not Latin, was the lingua franca of the time.
  4. When you say “oneness” are you referring to the heresy that denies the triune nature of God as taught in the Bible and promulgated by the true church? If not, please explain.
Oneness refers to triuneness under the leadership and communion with the pope.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top