Petra and Petros...?

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=mardukm;8549198]Dear brother Jon,
This might help, from another thread:
I interpret your comments as a denial of Sacramental/Incarnational theology (correct me if I’m wrong).
Consider yourself corrected. 😉
God works through the Church. PERIOD. That Christ changed Simon’s name to Rock has a very deep significance, for He is conferring on Simon a special Grace intimately attached to His (Jesus’) own quality as the Rock of the Church.
In a general sense, I have no problem with this. And in many ways, Peter was a rock in Christ’s Church.
I don’t understand the dichotomy placed by many between Peter as Rock, Peter’s Faith as Rock and Jesus as Rock. They are inseparably related, and that should be plainly obvious to anyone who adheres to Sacramental/Incarnational theology.
Let’s say, then, that you are correct (and I am one Lutheran who believes that it is difficult to separate Peter from his confession of faith). The issue is always for me how Peter is viewed in terms of ecclesiology.

Jon

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Joe,

Apologies if this has been answered but I don’t have time to read all 14 pages of posts. Jesus didn’t call Peter, Petros. He called him Kepha, which is Aramaic for (bed)rock. The equivalent word in Greek is Petra, however, it would be unthinkable to call him this as it’s a feminine noun. The nearest masculine word is Petros, which means small rock or pebble and it is this which was used to translate Kepha.

This would have been understood by people in the 1st Century and no Early Church Fathers saw a distinction between Petros and Peter being the rock on which the Church was founded.

Jesus also gave him the keys to the kingdom of heaven and the power to bind and loose. (of course all the Apostles were given this power but Peter received it individually at the time he was given the keys). It would be unthinkable for Jesus to give this tremendous authority to Peter and not intend for it to be passed on. If the early Church needed an authoritive leader, how much more would the later Christians need one after all the Apostles had died and when people tried to corrupt the teachings of the Church.
 
My friend JohnVIII,

I notice you changed your religion description from 96.5% Eastern Orthodox to waning semi-Orthodox…I really feel bad about that, because while from our conversations, I don’t feel you’re on your way to Rome, it looks like you’re also on your way out of Orthodoxy. That makes me sad. Surely you should belong to an Apostolic Church (and faith) for the sacraments at least 🤷. I really, really hope that our conversations here haven’t contributed to this (IMO) sad turn of events. Please give both churches a good honest to goodness shot before you leave us.

Peace!
1000% in agreement. Surely if you can’t find it your heart to agree with Rome you should without a doubt be involved in a true Apostolic Church.

Peace
 
Seems from reading the past day couple days of posts, which I missed, has bought about a different thinking on the Keys. This appears with Catholics also it seems. Perhaps it was my quick glance instead of deep thought.

Would Catholics agree with this link?

google.com/url?q=http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm&sa=U&ei=w426TvjCIee-2gWx9MHKBw&ved=0CBYQFjAA&usg=AFQjCNEaCmNy9rm0_DlJPB3hFrnXVQr-CQ

or perhaps here.🤷

google.com/url?q=http://www.catholic-pages.com/pope/hahn.asp&sa=U&ei=w426TvjCIee-2gWx9MHKBw&ved=0CB0QFjAB&usg=AFQjCNGD1Jk3jFUkSN0_6NZCqTKYSSRw-A

Peace
 
When it comes to the first century Jewish law, Paul was a Pharisee (lawyer) of the Mosaic Law. Your James was a fisherman from Galilee brother of John sons of Zebedee, whom Jesus called “Sons of Boanerges” Sons of Thunder.

Oops! Wrong James again. “My” James is not the bother of John, he is the brother of Jesus! After the Resurrection of Jesus, our Lord made a special visit to James after he appeared to the 12.

“He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles.” (1 Corinthians 15:5-7)

Make all you want out of the fact that Jesus appeared to Peter before the 12 apostles, and then latter on to James, but at least His appearance to James was a special one to one visit, as it also was for Cephas.

I’m not ready to concede that the role Peter played was greater that that of James. But, of course, I could be wrong. But if I am wrong it remains very clear that James, the brother of Jesus, at least played a very significant role in the Church, far greater than most, if not all, of his peers!

BTW >>>

Lest we get too far from the original question of this thread. Note that St Paul called St Peter “Cephas” several times. Is it safe to assume from this that St Paul knew exactly what was meant by this name Jesus gave to him? And further, don’t you think that if St Paul fully understood this, wouldn’t he show some sort of submissiveness to St Peter’s authority if the Rock of the Church is a matter of authority (contrary to what I have been claiming)? Then showing St Paul’s submissiveness or non-submissiveness to St Peter could bear some weight to the understating of what “Petros” may mean. Yes? No?

St Paul submissiveness to the Counsel of Jerusalem can only count as submissiveness to Peter if a particular interpretation is imputed to Act 15, so how about looking to other examples. When St Paul said, “Recognizing the grace that had been given to me, James and Cephas and John, who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, so that we might go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.” (Galatians 2:9). Why the phrase, “who were reputed to be”? Why not “who were” pillars? (The KJV says, “who seemed to be”). The word there is “dokountes”, which means, “ones-being-supposed”.

Of course, the point I’m making here would apply first to James before it would to Cephas or John, but I still think it is a point worth looking at. Why would James, Cephas, and John only have a supposed authority? There were men that came from James to Galatia that said you need to be circumcised and ordered to obey the Law of Moses. The counsel of Acts 15 corrected these men. But St Paul said that even if these men correctly spoke for the authority of St James (and Cephas, and John) that “If we [Paul and Barnabas], or an angel from heaven [James, Cephas, or John], should preach to you a gospel contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed! As we have said before, so I say again now, if any man is preaching to you a gospel contrary to what you received, he is to be accursed!” (Galatians 1:8-9). What I put in “]”'s is what I believe was implied there.

Conclusion: Petros, the foundation of the Church, could not be an outside infallible authority with regard to Faith (and morals). Nor could even St James, or even an angel from heaven (much less men from James) hold the authority to alter or change the Faith that was ‘once for all’ delivered to the saints! As it says in 1 John 2:27, “But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.” The foundation of the Church is inside of you, not outside of you.
 
Seems from reading the past day couple days of posts, which I missed, has bought about a different thinking on the Keys. This appears with Catholics also it seems. Perhaps it was my quick glance instead of deep thought.

Would Catholics agree with this link?

google.com/url?q=http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08631b.htm&sa=U&ei=w426TvjCIee-2gWx9MHKBw&ved=0CBYQFjAA&usg=AFQjCNEaCmNy9rm0_DlJPB3hFrnXVQr-CQ

or perhaps here.🤷

google.com/url?q=http://www.catholic-pages.com/pope/hahn.asp&sa=U&ei=w426TvjCIee-2gWx9MHKBw&ved=0CB0QFjAB&usg=AFQjCNGD1Jk3jFUkSN0_6NZCqTKYSSRw-A
Thanks for the info
Peace
 
Dear [user]joe370[/user],

I’m going to change my vote. I said before that even though “Petros” is feminine I still think it refers to the person of St Peter. I now think it has to refer to the confession of St Peter. Let me tell you why I changed my mind.

First off, just to make sure we understand, by “confession” of St Peter, I mean the Faith in Christ, that He is the Son of God, that Peter believed inside himself because God the Father reveled it to him. This same internal Faith in Christ can be reveled within anyone.

What we know for certain is that whatever “Petros” may be it is the foundation of the Church. So wherever the Church is the foundation of the Church will be there too. Even though we so often speak of the Church as being outside of us (as in the church out on the corner of “walk” and “don’t walk”) really the Church is inside of us! Even though “the Kingdom of God” is not exactly the same thing as “the Church”, it is close enough to point out that our Lord said, “And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation: Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.” So “Petros” must be within St Peter! The divinely revealed Faith of St Peter best fits what Petros must be!

It was those scripture verses I came to in post#204 that made me realize this. The Faith that each one of us has internally we must hold onto, even if “an angel from heaven” should tell us to believe contrary, because it is the sure foundation of the Church.

I’m so glad we had this thread, as it helped me come to understand this! Thank you Brother [user]joe370[/user]! 👍

BTW, I still believe the Keys were given to the person of St Peter and what they mean is that Jesus appointed St Peter to be an oracle to Christians. What God reviled to St Peter by divine revelation is for certain God speaking “the Kingdom of God”.
 
“He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles.” (1 Corinthians 15:5-7)
Just one Q: Why do you assume that this James is the brother of the Lord and not the son of Zebedee?

Peace!
 
Dear [user]joe370[/user],

I’m going to change my vote. I said before that even though “Petros” is feminine I still think it refers to the person of St Peter. I now think it has to refer to the confession of St Peter.
John,

This is incorrect. Petros is a masculine noun, not feminine which is why the Greek author chose it as a suitable substitute for Kepha, instead of the more accurate, Petra - which is a feminine noun.

The evidence for Peter’s primacy is extensive.
Aside from Mt 16:18-19 there are:
Lk 2:32
Jn 21:17
Mk 16:7
Lk 24:34
Acts 1:13-26; 2:14;2:41;3:6-7;5:1-11;8:21;10:44-46;15:7;15:19; Gal 1:18;

The above refer to things like receiving the first converts, the first excommunication, first punishment, first dogmatic decision, etc.

Also Peter’s name always heads the list of the Apostles- Mt 10:1-4; Mk 3:16-19; Lk 6:14-16; Acts 1:13
He speaks for the Apostles -Mt 18:21; Mk 8:29; Lk 8:45, 12:41; Jn 6:69

Even Peter’s name is mentioned 195 times - more than ALL the rest put together? All this can hardly be said to be circumstantial evidence
 
Hello John,
Lest we get too far from the original question of this thread. Note that St Paul called St Peter “Cephas” several times. Is it safe to assume from this that St Paul knew exactly what was meant by this name Jesus gave to him? And further, don’t you think that if St Paul fully understood this, wouldn’t he show some sort of submissiveness to St Peter’s authority if the Rock of the Church is a matter of authority (contrary to what I have been claiming)?
Why should any of that matter? St. Paul and St. James called Simon Cephas because that was the name the Lord gave him. His personal appreciation of all that the Lord may have meant by it, or his lack of it has no bearing at all on the actual meaning of it or the fact that the Lord did name him what he did.
Why the phrase, “who were reputed to be”? Why not “who were” pillars? (The KJV says, “who seemed to be”). The word there is “dokountes”, which means, “ones-being-supposed”.
What does it matter that Paul said “seemed to be” speaking of the three and their reputation among the believers when the Lord himself had said to Simon thou art Rock?
But St Paul said that even if these men correctly spoke for the authority of St James (and Cephas, and John) that “If we [Paul and Barnabas], or an angel from heaven [James, Cephas, or John], should preach to you a gospel contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed! As we have said before, so I say again now, if any man is preaching to you a gospel contrary to what you received, he is to be accursed!” (Galatians 1:8-9).
Or perhaps St. Paul just meant what he said! Even if we (Apostles) or the Angels! John, with all due respect, I think that the difference you’re creating here is artificial.
Conclusion: Petros, the foundation of the Church, could not be an outside infallible authority with regard to Faith (and morals).
No, he could not- he was definitely an inside infallible authority. I must say John, (with respect) your interpretations of scripture are more than just a stretch- you seem to make them say what they simply do not say. 🤷

Peace!
 
JohnVIII;8555141]Oops! Wrong James again. “My” James is not the bother of John, he is the brother of Jesus! After the Resurrection of Jesus, our Lord made a special visit to James after he appeared to the 12.
Thank you, you confirmed my earlier point that James remains a topic of debate. If your James is not the James the Greater, **then you believe him to be James the Lesser or “the younger” (see Mk 15:40) **the “Son of Alphaeus” (see Mt. 10:3, Mk 3:18, Lk 5; and Acts 1:13). Your James is also identified as the son of Mary wife of Clopas (see Jn. 19:25). Who came also from Nazareth related to the Judah tribes of Jesus called by Semitic understanding as a “brother of Jesus” Mt. 13:55, Mk 6:3, Gal. 1:19).

In his epistle James refers himself not as “brother of the Lord” but as a “servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ” (see James 1:1).

The point is James plays an important role in the early Church especially being a pillar of the Jerusalem Church, from which Peter began to evangelize immediately after pentecost before any Church existed in Jerusalem.

It is from this James that the Church reveals her identity as Judeo/Christian for this great reflection is attributed to this James the lesser. What I love most of this James is his relentless exultation to the holiness and virginity of Mary.

This James is not the only one who writes a “Catholic epistle” in fact the last five epistles in the new testament are addressed to the “Catholic Church”.

What is fascinating about this James theology and Pauls theology appears to be in direct contradiction on the surface. James “faith apart from works is dead” compared to Pauls teaching “we are justified by faith”. The Church although correctly interprets these teaching as completing each other, thanks to Peter who explains that Pauls letters can be difficult to interpret, that’s why we need the Church to interpret these hard to understand teachings.

For the record Jesus appeared to Peter first and then all the apostles and more. You are pretending that Jesus is setting a presidence of James over all the apostles, you have left Sacred Tradition and revealed Sacred Scripture.
“He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles.” (1 Corinthians 15:5-7)
Scripture attests Peter walking on water, raising the dead and then foretelling the death of Ananias and Sapphira because of their deception before Peter. Did James do any of these works? This is never to belittle this great Saint, but to reveal Peter served the Whole church while James served the church in Jerusalem.
Make all you want out of the fact that Jesus appeared to Peter before the 12 apostles, and then latter on to James, but at least His appearance to James was a special one to one visit, as it also was for Cephas.
I find no disagreement with this;
I’m not ready to concede that the role Peter played was greater that that of James. But, of course, I could be wrong. But if I am wrong it remains very clear that James, the brother of Jesus, at least played a very significant role in the Church, far greater than most, if not all, of his peers!
I agree James played a very important role in the infant Church, no one is doubting this one bit. All the apostles role was very significant to the growth of the Church.

BTW >>>
Lest we get too far from the original question of this thread. Note that St Paul called St Peter “Cephas” several times. Is it safe to assume from this that St Paul knew exactly what was meant by this name Jesus gave to him? And further, don’t you think that if St Paul fully understood this, wouldn’t he show some sort of submissiveness to St Peter’s authority if the Rock of the Church is a matter of authority (contrary to what I have been claiming)? Then showing St Paul’s submissiveness or non-submissiveness to St Peter could bear some weight to the understating of what “Petros” may mean. Yes? No?
Paul’s ministry was evangelizing the Gentiles and all others in between including Jews and staying alive to complete his race. Peter’s role begins at replacing Judas with another disciple “Mathias”, then preaching to all the Jews in Jerusalem and baptizing the thousands there. Peter is recorded hearing from heaven, binding and loosing “Ananias” before the church, raising the dead, healing the sick and Paul visits with Peter alone to confer his vocation from Jesus and teachings to be from God, when James and all other Jews feared Paul a persecutor of the church.

Jesus named Simon bar Jona “Kephas” aramaic for Rock, Paul writing in Greek calls Peter “Cephas”. The latins record Peter as Petros because it is a masculine noun meaning “small pebble”, when “Petra” means massive rock but does relates to a feminine noun which the latins did not take to too well because Peter= Kephas= (Gk) Cephas was a large man.

I believe for one to have submissiveness to the other misses the point in Catholicism. Peter never equates his authority to be one to submit to, this is unreasonable Christian teaching. Both Peter and Paul were martyred for their faith.

Jesus never called Paul because if his faith. Jesus never calls Peter from his faith, Jesus makes Peter from Simon Bar Jona’s profession of faith to build His Church upon.

to be cont;
 
Originally Posted by JohnVIII View Post
Dear joe370,
I’m going to change my vote. I said before that even though “Petros” is feminine I still think it refers to the person of St Peter. I now think it has to refer to the confession of St Peter.
Keeping in mind that Simon’s confession and his new name Rock, are not mutually exclusive. Catholic church believes both but if you are now going exclusively with the following, that’s cool brother?

“you are petros (rock) and on this petra (Simon’s confession) - I will build my church”

I don’t get it but OK…👍
 
Hey Jon…
Let’s say, then, that you are correct (and I am one Lutheran who believes that it is difficult to separate Peter from his confession of faith). The issue is always for me how Peter is viewed in terms of ecclesiology.
Do you embrace the following:

Jesus is the divine Cornerstone and the divine Rock on which His church is built.

Simon, renamed Cephas, by Jesus, is the temporal, visible Rock on which Jesus’ church is built, due to the fact that Simon, prior to being named Cephas, confessed the following:

“you are the Messiah the Son of the Living God.”

What we cannot do, logically and grammatically, is say:

"you are petros (rock) - and on this petra (Simon’s confession) - I will build my church?

Correct? 👍
 
cont;
St Paul submissiveness to the Counsel of Jerusalem can only count as submissiveness to Peter if a particular interpretation is imputed to Act 15, so how about looking to other examples. When St Paul said, “Recognizing the grace that had been given to me, James and Cephas and John, who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, so that we might go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.” (Galatians 2:9). Why the phrase, “who were reputed to be”? Why not “who were” pillars? (The KJV says, “who seemed to be”). The word there is “dokountes”, which means, “ones-being-supposed”.
Placed in the context of the first century, Paul writes to the Galatians 14 years later and approximately 11 years after the council of Jerusalem. Placing a character of submissiveness on Paul? who is proven to be a zealot not only for the Law at one time but now one who is willing to die for Christ making him a “fundamental extremist Christian” who shows no character of submissiveness to anyone except Jesus and the Church which Paul learns the lesson is “the body of Christ”.

Paul writes to the Galatians in the past tense as coming to the knowledge that James bishop of Jerusalem whom all the Christians know about, Cephas and John who were reputed to be pillars support his ministry to them the Galatians.

Paul also relates to “super apostles” and comparing those who claim to Peter and others claiming to belong to Paul. Paul clearly teaches this frame of mind is not Christian. I love what Paul states here 1Cor.1:13 “IS CHRIST DIVIDED”?
Of course, the point I’m making here would apply first to James before it would to Cephas or John, but I still think it is a point worth looking at. Why would James, Cephas, and John only have a supposed authority? There were men that came from James to Galatia that said you need to be circumcised and ordered to obey the Law of Moses. The counsel of Acts 15 corrected these men. But St Paul said that even if these men correctly spoke for the authority of St James (and Cephas, and John) that “If we [Paul and Barnabas], or an angel from heaven [James, Cephas, or John], should preach to you a gospel contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed! As we have said before, so I say again now, if any man is preaching to you a gospel contrary to what you received, he is to be accursed!” (Galatians 1:8-9). What I put in “]”'s is what I believe was implied there.
I agree, but let us look at the whole of scripture; Peter had seen and heard from heaven to allow the Gentiles into the Church, so Peter never teaches or preaches another Gospel. The bishop of Jerusalem however is James who’s Jewish converts are placing a burden on the Gentile converts. Paul places a curse on these. Thus a council and letters from this council circulates informing the councils decision followed by disciplines from James to his Jewish converts, Paul disciplines his Gentile converts much differently than James. Peter never speaks of local disciplines, only what God has revealed to the church.
Conclusion: Petros, the foundation of the Church, could not be an outside infallible authority with regard to Faith (and morals).
I agree, what you state here is never Catholic doctrine nor is it ever Christian faith. Someone is decieving you on matters of infallibility and the Church being the body of Christ and Jesus our head. Peter never operates outside of revealed teachings from Jesus Christ and Sacred Tradition, these protect Peter along with the Holy Spirit when he binds and looses on earth Jesus binds and looses in heaven.
 
Just one Q: Why do you assume that this James is the brother of the Lord and not the son of Zebedee?

Peace!
In that verse (1 Corinthians 15:5-7) only two men were mentioned by name Cephas and James. Just like Cephas, everyone knew who you were most likely referring to when you simply said “James”. St Paul referred to James several times just as “James” and only once did he add “James, the brother of the Lord”. Of the 12 apostles there were 2 that had the name James, so who among those named “James” is most likely to be the one that would be the one that all knew you meant if you simply said “James”? I have never read how this is a controversy, all seem to say this was James, bishop of Jerusalem.

Also, James is never said to be an apostle (with one exception that I will get to). Note how St Paul separates him from apostles in that verse:

“He appeared to Cephas [Chief apostle], then to the twelve [apostles, which include James, the son of Zebedee]. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time [presumably not apostles], most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James [Paul just said “James”, as all would know who he meant], then to all the apostles [what apostles are left? Probably the 70].”

After Jesus chose the 12 apostles, He later chose 70 others and sent them. These 70 are sometimes also called apostles. If Paul didn’t mean the 70 when he said “then to all the apostles”, I don’t have a clue who else he could have possibly meant, and I doubt anyone could say. The first bishop of most (I say all, not most) of the See’s established by the apostles were members of the 70, and according to a listing of the 70 by Hippolytus of Rome, the first of the 70 is none other than James the brother of Jesus, bishop of Jerusalem. So, if this is true, this would be the only sense that James was ever called an apostle, being first of the 70 apostles.

Dare I mention another apocryphal work? The “First Apocalypse of James” says that James had authority over the twelve Apostles and the early church. Of course this book is clearly Gnostic, but it my contain details that reflect early traditions.
 
John,

This is incorrect. Petros is a masculine noun, not feminine which is why the Greek author chose it as a suitable substitute for Kepha, instead of the more accurate, Petra - which is a feminine noun.
You are right, I got the two mixed up, oops! :o
 
I must say John, (with respect) your interpretations of scripture are more than just a stretch- you seem to make them say what they simply do not say. 🤷

Peace!
Ok, disregard what I said if it seems too much of a stretch. But, if you care to, consider this short comparison:

angel → men
from heaven → from James
preaching another gospel → saying you must be circumcised

… all within the same epistle. Not a stretch to me.

Peace!
 
Ok, disregard what I said if it seems too much of a stretch. But, if you care to, consider this short comparison:

angel → men
from heaven → from James
preaching another gospel → saying you must be circumcised

… all within the same epistle. Not a stretch to me.

Peace!
Or perhaps angel from heaven just means angel from heaven?

Peace
 
In that verse (1 Corinthians 15:5-7) only two men were mentioned by name Cephas and James. Just like Cephas, everyone knew who you were most likely referring to when you simply said “James”. St Paul referred to James several times just as “James” and only once did he add “James, the brother of the Lord”. Of the 12 apostles there were 2 that had the name James, so who among those named “James” is most likely to be the one that would be the one that all knew you meant if you simply said “James”? I have never read how this is a controversy, all seem to say this was James, bishop of Jerusalem.

Also, James is never said to be an apostle (with one exception that I will get to). Note how St Paul separates him from apostles in that verse:

“He appeared to Cephas [Chief apostle], then to the twelve [apostles, which include James, the son of Zebedee]. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time [presumably not apostles], most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James [Paul just said “James”, as all would know who he meant], then to all the apostles [what apostles are left? Probably the 70].”
I’m pretty sure I can get bible verses where James son of Zebedee was referred to simply as James. There has to be some other basis for making that assumption other than he said “James”. Otherwise then your exegesis necessarily begins with assumptions about the text and is not a true exegesis at all.
After Jesus chose the 12 apostles, He later chose 70 others and sent them. These 70 are sometimes also called apostles. If Paul didn’t mean the 70 when he said “then to all the apostles”, I don’t have a clue who else he could have possibly meant, and I doubt anyone could say. The first bishop of most (I say all, not most) of the See’s established by the apostles were members of the 70, and according to a listing of the 70 by Hippolytus of Rome, the first of the 70 is none other than James the brother of Jesus, bishop of Jerusalem. So, if this is true, this would be the only sense that James was ever called an apostle, being first of the 70 apostles.
I’m sure there were not 30, 40, 50, 70 Apostles! The 12 are Apostles plus st. Paul. The twelve include 2 James’- son of Zebedee and son of Alpheus, James the Greater and the lesser. Catholicism identifies James the lesser with the Lord’s brother due to many factors. Will post the relevant new advent page in my next post. Nowhere are the 70 called Apostles in any capacity- we can’t just keep make stuff up to fit our theologies, John. Is their any reference for calling the 70 Apostles?
Dare I mention another apocryphal work? The “First Apocalypse of James” says that James had authority over the twelve Apostles and the early church. Of course this book is clearly Gnostic, but it my contain details that reflect early traditions.
I agree John- And the way we sort between myth and tradition is to look for support in patristic teaching, that which has zero support is myth and is why the book is not authoritative.

Peace!
 
I’m sure there were not 30, 40, 50, 70 Apostles! The 12 are Apostles plus st. Paul. The twelve include 2 James’- son of Zebedee and son of Alpheus, James the Greater and the lesser. Catholicism identifies James the lesser with the Lord’s brother due to many factors. Will post the relevant new advent page in my next post. Nowhere are the 70 called Apostles in any capacity- we can’t just keep make stuff up to fit our theologies, John. Is their any reference for calling the 70 Apostles?
In the East, the 70 (sometimes 72, it depends on the bible you are using) Disciples are usually known as the 70 Apostles. Barnabas, Luke the Evangelist, Mark the Evangelist, Philip the Evangelist, St. Stephen (the first martyr), Timothy and Titus are all famous members of the 70/72 Disciples/Apostles.

A reference to the 70 Apostles can be found in Luke 10:

[BIBLEDRB]Luke 10:1-20[/BIBLEDRB]
 
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