M
MariaG
Guest
Ahh too late to edit again. My comments above are not truly on topic. There is a thread here,
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=74556&highlight=filioque+explanation
dealing with the filioque. Sorry for straying.
For example, post 31 forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=933494#post933494
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=74556&highlight=filioque+explanation
dealing with the filioque. Sorry for straying.
For example, post 31 forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=933494#post933494
posted by InnocentIII
It was included in the creed in Spain for an excellent practical (though perhaps not theological) reason as a means of combatting the Arianism of the Visigoths. It must be remembered that the Arian Visigoths greatly persecuted orthodox Catholics and the addition to the creed was intended to clearly distinguish the Arian doctrine of the subsidiarity of the son from orthodox Catholicism. Put simply the Arians could argue that as the Spirit proceeded from the Father and not the Son, the Father must therefore be greater than the Son. Whatever the theology of the addition, it did reaffirm the the co-equality of the Father and the Son.
The subsequent history of the clause was closely bound up with politics both secualr and religious. There is evidence that the other Patriarchates accepted the interpolation possibly because of the opposition to Photius. The whole history of Photius is of course one on which the Orthodox and Catholic Church will unlikely see eye to eye. But in an age when personal and political squabbles needed at least a religious basis the filioque provided a convenient point of departure. As the Wikipedia article points out Photius was the first important theologian to accuse Rome of innovation in this matter and that was 400 years after the Synod of Toledo and 100 years before the creed was included in the Roman mass.
Why is it such a big deal - because it has become a shibboleth, a means of disguising the true division between East and West namely authority. Were either side to admit that it was a bit of theological trivia (in line with the number of angels on the head of a pin) nothing other than the (purely egotistical and secular) desire to be first would divide them. in this regard, the Orthodox have a greater problem than Rome for Rome has over the centuries developed a fully articulated doctrine of Papal primacy. Indeed the Eastern rite Catholic Churches do not use the clause and yet this does not inhibit the acceptance of Papal primacy. The Orthodox, whose primacy rested soley on Constantinople’s position as the “New Rome” and the somewhat dubious foundation of the “see” by St Andrew and who lack a fully developed doctrine of primacy (as in some of the comments by Bishop Ware) would have more difficulty in asserting their primacy vis a vis Rome. perhaps for this reason the filioque is clung to even more tenaciously as a marker of theological difference.