J
joemccarron
Guest
I point out that this thread is really only discussing one philosophical proof of the existence of God. Which is fine but the topic title suggests otherwise. There are other arguments.
Huh?Cause does not need to precede effect.
Cause and effect can be concurrent. Take a cut made by a knife: the cause (knife) and effect (cut) are concurrent.Huh?
Effect inherently necessitates a cause.
An effect cannot exist without a cause.
I happen to do cause and effect analysis for a living and I can tell you the the knife is not the cause of the cut.Cause and effect can be concurrent. Take a cut made by a knife: the cause (knife) and effect (cut) are concurrent.
I was responding to your earlier statement that “cause does not need to precede effect.” It is an impossibility to have an effect without a cause.Cause and effect can be concurrent. Take a cut made by a knife: the cause (knife) and effect (cut) are concurrent.
yet another thing i didn’t say.
here is the wiki definition-
where is it talking about something that exists? that doesnt seem to be the wiki definition. how can it than support your position? what?
This reminds me…I was responding to your earlier statement that “cause does not need to precede effect.” It is an impossibility to have an effect without a cause.
i am so stealing that analogy.Cause and effect can be concurrent. Take a cut made by a knife: the cause (knife) and effect (cut) are concurrent.
not to get into the whole ‘what cut without the knife?’ idea im just curious as to what exactly cause and effect analyst is?I happen to do cause and effect analysis for a living and I can tell you the the knife is not the cause of the cut.
The true cause is whatever action moves the knife in relation to the thing being cut. The start of this motion would always precede the completion of the “cut”.
see this is why nobody wants to argue with youThis reminds me…
**Potentiality To The Actuality Of An Effect.
**
A cause can transcend its effect. It is true, in one particular sense, that God precedes all effects. However; God transcends all effects, and thus exists simultaneous to any effect that is in time. Hence it is not necessary for God to precede his effect. A physical cause must precede its effect because it is in time; or rather, all potentialities for change must exist prior to any given actuality, and every potentiality must have a sufficient cause in order for it to be a logical possibility. Otherwise, it is impossible that a thing can become actual or real, since it has no potentiality to become.
Once one understands that a thing in time (meaning anything that begins to change or exist) exists because it had potential, and that any given potentiality is only made possible by something else that existed before hand, then one can expose the flaws of naturalism. This is why quantum physics cannot be used as a reasonable explanation for the beginning of all things. Naturalism has been refuted, and has been dead for hundreds of years. The world is in denial. Hence; the beginning of all things must be, by logical necessity, transcended, in order to explain the phenomenon, or potentiality that exists necessarily in relation to the first-event. You cannot get potentiality from nothing. Since all natural events (random, accidental, determined or all three) no-longer have any explanatory power, the only possible explanation left is an eternal expression of will and power. Existence has intentionally shared itself with other beings.There is no other possible or logical explanation left other then that.
The naturalist has no choice but to deny logic altogether. When are they gonna learn?
In other-words a cause can transcend its effect, providing that it exists eternally uncaused; outside of time.
I have noticed that such an argument has become like a calling card for the protestant. Its almost as if they are characterized by that argument; as if its a part of their very being and nature to express it.im not protestant creationist myself, but my conversation with neb, has led me to that question.
I’ve heard it in class and I have a book by W. Norris Clarke that makes a similar analogy: The One and the Many: A Contemporary Thomistic Metaphysics.i am so stealing that analogy.![]()
That’s a causal chain. The terminus of that chain of efficient causes is the knife which is the efficient cause of the cut.I happen to do cause and effect analysis for a living and I can tell you the the knife is not the cause of the cut.
The true cause is whatever action moves the knife in relation to the thing being cut. The start of this motion would always precede the completion of the “cut”.
W. Norris Clarke said:Objection: But is it not quite legitimate, and generally accepted, to say that “the cause is prior to its effect?”
Response: Yes, but only if a crucial distinction is made: every efficient cause precedes its effect in order of dependence, of the origin of its being, but not in the order of time. This is often forgotten…
i think in the same general terms, the first question is existence, though i dont care one way or the other about evolution per se, its too small of a problem in the face of existence.As soon as you ask the question “why is chemistry as such that man is the end product”, naturalism loses its explanatory power; since nature has to have a quality of being or form before it can behave or become what it is in order that it can be an explanation for anything.
Here’s the wiki definition:EXPOSED!!!
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It was a joke, petey, you know, a humourous, tongue-in-cheek remark. Hence the little smiley thing at the end of the paragraphyet another thing i didn’t say.
The knife cuts butter because the molecules of the knife push the molecules of the butter out of the way. This requires force and accelleration, neither of which can happen instantaneously, both of which require time.i am so stealing that analogy.![]()