O
o_mlly
Guest
Clearly, those people who are refunded all withholding paid no taxes.I can’t agree or disagree until I see how the givers and takers are being defined! I’m trying to understand how limiting voters that DO pay taxes even though on April 15th they get it all back.
Were sales tax or property tax payments made with welfare transfers? If so, then they paid no taxes.They still pay taxes on purchases and some pay property tax, etc.
That is the point. It is not novel in this country to limit the privilege of voting. See The Right to Vote: The Contested History of Democracy in the United States By Alexander Keyssar.How would this not be taxation without representation?
Did that someone receive welfare payments? If so then no vote.How would someone that is extremely wealthy but winds up paying little to no income tax be classified?
The restriction to voting cannot be based on the usual non-discriminatory categories – race, religion, national origin, etc. But limiting the privilege to vote based on one’s dependency on government welfare payments (and their rational but unwise choice to extend their dependency) seems reasonable and just.While there are some people that I would prefer not to vote, I’m very leery of limiting anyone’s legal right to vote. I’d rather see a process to educate voters than remove them from the polls.
I will put to you the same question as the to other interlocutor. Do you believe our political system will work out of the financial disaster without draconian welfare cuts which few will be less prepared for then as opposed to doing something now? If so what do you propose?
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