1 Tim 3:15 says: “But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.” and 1 Tim 3:16 “And evidently great is the mystery of godliness, which was manifested in the flesh – --” (Douay-Rheims). The point was that the original Greek does not have punctuation, so supposedly you could not know if “the pillar and ground of the truth” belonged to the preceding or the following verse. I don’t know if both alternatives are grammatical in ancient Greek.
I would respond that, as Catholics, we are not particularly interested in how verses are broken up and certainly pulling verses out of context is a bad idea. That, it can be reasonably assumed that those who devised the chapter and verse system did so with a reasonable eye toward clarity and continuity.
Then I would ask the person to take these verses, 14-16 and provide a better punctuation, or division that that already given in most translations.
To help them I could offer this from J.P Green’s Literal Translation - and I will even remove all of the punctuation:
i write these things to you hoping to come to you shortly but if i delay that you may know how to behave in the house of God which is the assembly of the living God the pillar and foundation of the truth and confessedly great is the mystery of godliness God was manifested in flesh was justified in Spirit was seen by angels was proclaimed among nations was believed on in the world was taken up in glory.
Then offer to sit down with him with any set of scripture translations and/or Greek and see if these verses can reasonably be put together in any way other than what is the long accepted fashion.
If you can have access to on line versions -
here is a good site where, if you look up using the King James Version, you can access the Greek and Greek definitions of the words etc…
And the best part is that it is not a Catholic site, so your non-catholic friend should be satisfied that it does not have a “Catholic slant”…
I once did exactly this. The reply was that Matt 18 refers to a process of excommunication, and in Acts 15 they were not exactly excommunicating anyone (which, by the way, could only be done by the local church, never by an external authority).
This is not uncommon. The person wishes to place limits on Mt 18 that ares simply not there.
- Mt 18 does contain the aspect of excommunication as an action to be taken in case of an obstinate refusal to “listen to the Church”. But that only serves to bolster the idea of the visible church having authority.
- The only reason that Acts didn’t get to the excommunication aspect is because the Judaizers at the council Listened to The Church as they were instructed to do by Christ in Mt 18.
- Excommunications are NEVER done by an external authority. Since the Church is One, Holy, Universal (Catholic) and Apostolic, the larger Church only serves to act in concert with the local body in matters of excommunication.
Also, decisions like Acts 15 would not be binding if they were “contrary to gospel”. At that time, the other party did not want to discuss it any further.
I’m not surprised they did not want to discuss it further. Since by bringing in the “contrary to the Gospel” argument they have trapped themselves.
The Gospel contains Christ giving authority to the Church. The Authority to “Bind and Loose”…“whatever”…
The protestant can dance around the issue but in truth, neither the NT or early Church history (read 1500 years of Church history**!!**) supports the Protestant model.
Peace
James