Z
ZMystiCat
Guest
So I’m sure most of us are aware of 1 Timothy 3:15:
I have considered that it doesn’t make sense to refer to God as the “pillar and foundation of truth”, since He Himself is truth. He doesn’t merely support it, as if there is some truth outside of God that is grounded in the truth that is God. It seems more likely that it is referring to the Church, as the Church holds up what God reveals about Himself to the world. But of course then we’re getting to the bit where Catholics and Protestants disagree, so it seems a bit like begging the question there.
So I am wondering if there is reason to grammatically understand it as referring to the Church and not God. Is my understanding of English grammar that bad, or does it come from the Greek or Latin?
(Note: Don’t take this as me questioning the Church’s authority. The verse wasn’t really critical to me becoming Catholic. I’m just curious, since I see this verse brought up so much.)
Maybe my reading comprehension is a little out of whack, but every time I see this, I struggle a bit understanding what “the pillar and foundation of truth” is referencing. Grammatically, it seems ambiguous, in that it might be referencing the whole phrase “the church of the living God” or just “the living God”. In the former case, it would refer to the Church, but in the latter case, it would refer to God Himself.But if I should be delayed, you should know how to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of truth.
I have considered that it doesn’t make sense to refer to God as the “pillar and foundation of truth”, since He Himself is truth. He doesn’t merely support it, as if there is some truth outside of God that is grounded in the truth that is God. It seems more likely that it is referring to the Church, as the Church holds up what God reveals about Himself to the world. But of course then we’re getting to the bit where Catholics and Protestants disagree, so it seems a bit like begging the question there.
So I am wondering if there is reason to grammatically understand it as referring to the Church and not God. Is my understanding of English grammar that bad, or does it come from the Greek or Latin?
(Note: Don’t take this as me questioning the Church’s authority. The verse wasn’t really critical to me becoming Catholic. I’m just curious, since I see this verse brought up so much.)