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hicetnunc
Guest
Thanks for your reply.Also, the Catechism makes no specific reference to Aristotle’s Golden Mean.
“Be ye perfect, even as your heavenly Father is perfect.” Mathew 5:48
You are right in saying that the catechism doesn’t make any specific reference to Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean. Indeed, the catechism isn’t an exhaustive philosophical reference and there are many things in the Catechism which are not explicitly stated. For example, neither will you find a discussion in the catechism of Aristotle’s doctrine of syllogistic logic. The catechism is not a philosophy book. So there are many things which are a valuable part of the Christian contribution to philosophy which are not covered in the Catechism.
As for your John Hardon reference, Fr Hardon is not rejecting Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean in this document. In fact, nowhere does Fr Hardon reject Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean; Fr Hardon himself was Thomistically trained and fully subscribed to Aristotelian-Thomistic philosophy. What Fr Hardon clarifies in the text you sent is a distinction to be understood between objective and subjective application of the doctrine, which most Thomists would not have a problem with.
Nor is there any conflict between Matthew 5:48 and the doctrine of the mean. In fact, St Thomas himself quotes this passage in explaining the meaning of the virtuous and holy life in his Commentary on 1 Corinthians. As I have mentioned, St Thomas himself explains virtue in the context of the mean. Perfection comes in consistently and correctly attaining the mean in the moral virtues. Not only is there no conflict between this doctrine and the teachings of the Church, it is in fact an honoured account of virtues in Catholic theology.
Perhaps you could provide some concrete reference to support you claim that the Church rejects the Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean, if you are interested in exploring this further and we can unpack it together.
Pax.