Please Explain This Contrasting View

[Rosanna]

I was just reading an article from the website, GotQuestions.org, and have become quite confused. I will attach it to this posting. The title is: “What does the Bible say about the Virgin Mary?” I must say that I checked Matt.1:25 and they seem to be right. I’m a practising Catholic but at the moment am not quite sure what I should believe.

GotQuestions.org Recommends:

What does the Bible say about the virgin Mary?

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Question: “What does the Bible say about the virgin Mary?”

Answer: Mary the mother of Jesus was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace.

Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “. . . and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior. . .”

Mary recognized that she needed the Savior. The Bible never says that Mary was anyone but an ordinary human whom God chose to use in an extraordinary way. Yes, Mary was a righteous woman and favored (graced) by God (Luke 1:27-28). At the same time, Mary was a sinful human being who needed Jesus Christ as her Savior, just like everyone else (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23; 1 John 1:8).

Mary did not have an “immaculate conception.” The Bible doesn’t suggest Mary’s birth was anything but a normal human birth. Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus (Luke 1:34-38), but the idea of the perpetual virginity of Mary is unbiblical. Matthew 1:25, speaking of Joseph, declares, “But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave Him the name Jesus.”

The word “until” clearly indicates that Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born. Joseph and Mary had several children together after Jesus was born. Jesus had four half-brothers: James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas (Matthew 13:55). Jesus also had half-sisters, although they are not named or numbered (Matthew 13:55-56). God blessed and graced Mary by giving her several children, which in that culture was the clearest indication of God’s blessing on a woman.

One time when Jesus was speaking, a woman in the crowd proclaimed, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed” (Luke 11:27). There was never a better opportunity for Jesus to declare that Mary was indeed worthy of praise and adoration. What was Jesus’ response? “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it” (Luke 11:28). To Jesus, obedience to God’s Word was more important than being the woman who gave birth to the Savior.

Nowhere in Scripture does Jesus, or anyone else, direct any praise, glory, or adoration towards Mary. Elizabeth, Mary’s relative, praised Mary in Luke 1:42-44, but her praise is based on the blessing of giving birth to the Messiah. It was not based on any inherent glory in Mary.

Mary was present at the cross when Jesus died (John 19:25). Mary was also with the apostles on the day of Pentecost (Acts 1:14). However, Mary is never mentioned again after Acts chapter 1. The apostles did not give Mary a prominent role. Mary’s death is not recorded in the Bible. Nothing is said about Mary ascending to heaven or having an exalted role there. As the earthly mother of Jesus, Mary should be respected, but she is not worthy of our worship or adoration.

The Bible nowhere indicates that Mary can hear our prayers or that she can mediate for us with God. Jesus is our only advocate and mediator in heaven (1 Timothy 2:5). If offered worship, adoration, or prayers, Mary would say the same as the angels: “Worship God!” (See Revelation 19:10; 22:9.) Mary herself sets the example for us, directing her worship, adoration, and praise to God alone: “My soul glorifies the Lord and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior, for He has been mindful of the humble state of His servant. From now on all generations will call me blessed, for the Mighty One has done great things for me — holy is His name” (Luke 1:46-49).

Recommended Resource: The Gospel According to Rome: Comparing Catholic Tradition and The Word of God by James McCarthy.

This page is also available in: Español, Português, Deutsch, Nederlands, Italiano, Polski, Hrvatski, Français

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Related Topics:

Is prayer to saints / Mary Biblical?

Is the perpetual virginity of Mary Biblical?

What is the Assumption of Mary?

What is the immaculate conception?

Are apparitions of Mary, such as Lady Fatima, true messages from God?

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What does the Bible say about the virgin Mary?

Verse of the Week

“…Jesus said, ‘It is finished.’ With that, He bowed His head and gave up His spirit.”

John 19:30

© Copyright 2002-2009 Got Questions Ministries - All Rights Reserved.
www.gotquestions.org - Bible Questions

 

[Verisimilitude]

Use caution reading non-Catholic sources.

Immaculate Conception
The immunity from original sin was given to Mary by a singular exemption from a universal law through the same merits of Christ, by which other men are cleansed from sin by baptism. Mary needed the redeeming Saviour to obtain this exemption, and to be delivered from the universal necessity and debt (debitum) of being subject to original sin. The person of Mary, in consequence of her origin from Adam, should have been subject to sin, but, being the new Eve who was to be the mother of the new Adam, she was, by the eternal counsel of God and by the merits of Christ, withdrawn from the general law of original sin. Her redemption was the very masterpiece of Christ’s redeeming wisdom. He is a greater redeemer who pays the debt that it may not be incurred than he who pays after it has fallen on the debtor.

No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel (Proto-evangelium), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman: “and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel” (Genesis 3:15). The translation “she” of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically. The conqueror from the seed of the woman, who should crush the serpent’s head, is Christ; the woman at enmity with the serpent is Mary. God puts enmity between her and Satan in the same manner and measure, as there is enmity between Christ and the seed of the serpent. Mary was ever to be in that exalted state of soul which the serpent had destroyed in man, i.e. in sanctifying grace. Only the continual union of Mary with grace explains sufficiently the enmity between her and Satan. The Proto-evangelium, therefore, in the original text contains a direct promise of the Redeemer, and in conjunction therewith the manifestation of the masterpiece of His Redemption, the perfect preservation of His virginal Mother from original sin.

The Blessed Virgin Mary

The Annunciation

CATECHISM OF THE CATHOLIC CHURCH

 

[wardrandolph]

Wow.They have done a good job of taking scripture out of context and not looking at Sacred Scripture as a whole.Remember there are several Mary’s mentioned.St.Johns Gospel,ch.19 vs25 begins the beatiful story of Our Blessed Mother at The cross with St.John.Here Jesus intrust the care of His Mother to John.Please note The Blessed Mother is at the foot of the cross.Mk.15:25-26states Mary Magdalene,Mary the mother of James,Joses and Salome,were looking on from a distance,Mt.27:55 also tells of these woman.Mary the Mother of James,Joseph.How can the Blessed Mother be in TWO places at once?At the foot of the cross and looking on from a distance?

 

[wardrandolph]

We know that 7 books were removed from the protestant bible.The original 1611 KJV.contained these books untill the 1800’s.Why?Because they confirmed Catholic Doctrine.2Macc.15-18 tells of a dead High Priest (Onias) and a dead Jeremiah Praying for the Holy city.

 

[kra130]

It is wrong to assume that Mary is being referenced in Genesis 3:15. In context it makes more sense that Eve is the woman and that Satan will be at war with mankind. The reference to Christ is obvious however saying that they are talking about Mary is downright foolish. While mary can be made to fit inside this verse it is completely out of context. Since Satan is not outside time he could not know what God meant when he said I will put enmity between you and woman. Rather i would view this as God saying that there will be strife between Satan and man until The Redeemer would come into the world and save it. Since Satan hates everything that God is he hates us and using all of his power to take as many of us down with him as he can because we are made in the image of our creator. So while some are able to make the stretch and cut and paste Mary into genesis, i would rather look at the passage in context. Plus no where in the Bible does it state that Mary was without sin is says in Romans 3:23 “for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” Paul does not say everyone except Mary but he makes a statement of absolute truth that no one is free of original sin. Since mary needed grace it is obvious that she had sinned because grace is not needed if one has not sinned. because grace by defintion is unearned and undeserved and the grace of God is that he has mercy on us even though we are sinners deserving of eternal damnation. so if mary was without sin similar to Christ then she would not need to have grace bestowed upon her. furthermore if God chose Mary and cleansed her of sin before her conception then wouldn’t this mean that Mary does not have free will? The logic is not there nor is the scriptural backing to protect this belief among Catholics. Because the pope is not God and the saints are not apostles and when they contradict or read things into scripture they are adding to the word of God which is a very dangerous thing to do.

 

[kra130]

Wow.They have done a good job of taking scripture out of context and not looking at Sacred Scripture as a whole.Remember there are several Mary’s mentioned.St.Johns Gospel,ch.19 vs25 begins the beatiful story of Our Blessed Mother at The cross with St.John.Here Jesus intrust the care of His Mother to John.Please note The Blessed Mother is at the foot of the cross.Mk.15:25-26states Mary Magdalene,Mary the mother of James,Joses and Salome,were looking on from a distance,Mt.27:55 also tells of these woman.Mary the Mother of James,Joseph.How can the Blessed Mother be in TWO places at once?At the foot of the cross and looking on from a distance?

you over looked that in Matthews account Mary Magdalene is looking from afar as well. and in Johns account she is with him and Jesus’ mother. Strange how both marys could be in two places at once.

 

[Muslim_Woman]

** In the name of Allah , the Most Gracious , Ever Merciful **

http://theislampath.com/smf/Smileys/default/salam.gif

…Mary recognized that she needed the Savior.

That’s interesting . She ever mentioned Jesus (pbuh) is her Saviour ??

 

[LilyM]

Eve was the woman in Genesis? Are you saying Eve was at enmity with Satan? Eve, the one who did Satan’s bidding and brought sin into the world, along with Adam? Do you even know what ‘enmity’ means? It means the WOMAN is as much the Devil’s enemy as her ‘seed’ - in what way did Eve demonstrate this Christlike enmity with Satan?

More tellingly, why on earth would Jesus be described as Eve’s seed and not Adam’s, since He was descended from both? The un-PC society that produced Genesis absolutely would’ve called Him ADAM’s seed - wouldn’t even have considered calling Him Eve’s seed when she had a husband who fathered her children.

Mary, on the other hand … well, Jesus WAS her seed, and hers alone since Jesus had no human father.

 

[NeedImprovement]

I was just reading an article from the website, GotQuestions.org, and have become quite confused. I will attach it to this posting…

The word “until” clearly indicates that Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born. Joseph and Mary had several children together after Jesus was born. Jesus had four half-brothers: James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas (Matthew 13:55). Jesus also had half-sisters, although they are not named or numbered (Matthew 13:55-56). God blessed and graced Mary by giving her several children, which in that culture was the clearest indication of God’s blessing on a woman.

One time when Jesus was speaking, a woman in the crowd proclaimed, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed” (Luke 11:27). There was never a better opportunity for Jesus to declare that Mary was indeed worthy of praise and adoration. What was Jesus’ response? “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it” (Luke 11:28). To Jesus, obedience to God’s Word was more important than being the woman who gave birth to the Savior. …

This argument hinged on the word “until” seems to be worked to death. It is quite possibly more indicative of a particular bent or mindset which attempts to prove a personal conviction, rather than an objective interpretation of sacred scripture.

For example, let’s say for argument’s sake, I’m determined to prove " that Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born ", regardless of how (purportedly) related passages are written in scripture. What other word could be used instead of until…? Not a lot of choices here. The word which would bear the closest meaning would be “before”, ie : ““But he had no union with her before she gave birth to a son.” My version of the NAB actually uses this word in Matthew 1:25 - “He had no relations with her at any time before she bore a son, whom he named Jesus”.

As plainly seen, the exact same argument could be made if the word “before” had been used instead of “until”, although the word “before” equally implies nothing came after.

The evangelist doesn’t concern himself with the period that followed the birth of Jesus. Emphasis here is on the virginity of the Mother of Jesus from the moment of His conception to His birth. In the same single passage the evangelist is confirming two things - that Joseph is not the biological father of Jesus, but that Joseph is, at the same time, chosen to be a father to Jesus in all but the biological sense; because it belonged to the father to name the child, and God, through his Angel, had commanded Joseph to name the child Jesus. Although we believe Mary to also be descended from the house of David, it is the God-appointed paternity of Joseph which yields the references to Jesus in scripture such as [paraphrase]…“Jesus…son of David…have pity on me.”

The only wording which could unequivocally have lent any credence to the unfounded claim that "Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born " would have needed to have been worded this way: " But he had no union with her ***until after **she had given *birth to a son." Although that particular wording would additionally have required verification against the original manuscripts, to date, not even in the most careless translations of the holy bible, have I ever come across it worded this way.

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One time when Jesus was speaking, a woman in the crowd proclaimed, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed” (Luke 11:27). There was never a better opportunity for Jesus to declare that Mary was indeed worthy of praise and adoration. What was Jesus’ response? “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it” (Luke 11:28). To Jesus, obedience to God’s Word was more important than being the woman who gave birth to the Savior. …

Actually, Jesus was honoring his Mother with these words. Recall Mary’s response to God’s invitation spoken by the Angel Gabriel: " Behold the handmaid of the Lord. Let it be done unto to me according to your word." These words came from Mary’s heart and she embraced God’s will in an ever-deepening sense from the moment it was revealed to her that she was to be Jesus’ Mother. The very fact that she was present at the foot of the Cross demonstrates how she remained resigned to God’s will. The Catholic Church proposes Mary as a model of obedience and humility.

 

[Hopeful23]

As part of the Catholic group on campus at college here, we often have a get together on Wednesday nights to discuss things that are easily misunderstood about the Church. In reference to this question we had one speaker come in and the way that he described it is that Sin is a great big hole int he ground that we make a choice to fall into. The way Mary received the Grace of God was that before she could even think about falling into it she was saved by the prospect of being the Mother of God. God saved her before he saved all of us and it was done before her birth.

 

[emeraldcoast]

I was just reading an article from the website, GotQuestions.org, and have become quite confused. I will attach it to this posting. The title is: “What does the Bible say about the Virgin Mary?” I must say that I checked Matt.1:25 and they seem to be right. I’m a practising Catholic but at the moment am not quite sure what I should believe.

Hi Rosanna,

The following may interest you, Mary Grace and Hope in Christ. The Anglican-Roman Catholic International Commission (ARCIC) an Agreed Statement.

aco.org/ministry/ecumenical/dialogues/catholic/arcic/docs/mary_grace%20_and_hope.cfm

God Bless!

 

[dixibehr]

I must say that I checked Matt.1:25 and they seem to be right. I’m a practising Catholic but at the moment am not quite sure what I should believe.<<

I will deal with this issue alone.

There are many places in the Bible when “until” means “and not even after this!”

For example, the Psalmist sang, “Behold, as the eyes of a servant look to his master, and the eyes of a maid to the hands of her mistress, so our eyes wait upon the Lord our God UNTIL He has mercy on us”–and so when the Lord has mercy on us, we take our eyes off Him?

“His righteousness shall increase UNTIL the moon be no more”–and then God’s righteousness will begin to shrink?

The same Greek word “eos” is used in the same Gospel, Matthew 28:20. “Lo, I am with you aways, even UNTIL (eos) the end of the world”–and so when the world comes to an end, Jesus is no longer with us.

Well, if “eos” in Matthew 1 means that Mary and Joseph had sex, then this is what “eos” means in Matthew 28.

Furthermore, “firstborn son” still has a technical meaning among Jews to this day.

If a woman’s first pregnancy results in a live birth of a male child is this considered her “firstborn son”, and as such is subject to the law of Redeption of the First Born.

If her first pregnany ends a stillbirth, abortion, miscarriage, or birth of a daughter (living or dead), and her second pregnancy in a son, this is NOT considered “firstborn son.”

In other words, “firstborn son” among Jews (and Matthew is the most Jewish Gospel) does not mean the woman had other children.

 

[kra130]

Eve was the woman in Genesis? Are you saying Eve was at enmity with Satan? Eve, the one who did Satan’s bidding and brought sin into the world, along with Adam? Do you even know what ‘enmity’ means? It means the WOMAN is as much the Devil’s enemy as her ‘seed’ - in what way did Eve demonstrate this Christlike enmity with Satan?

More tellingly, why on earth would Jesus be described as Eve’s seed and not Adam’s, since He was descended from both? The un-PC society that produced Genesis absolutely would’ve called Him ADAM’s seed - wouldn’t even have considered calling Him Eve’s seed when she had a husband who fathered her children.

Mary, on the other hand … well, Jesus WAS her seed, and hers alone since Jesus had no human father.

You obviously did not read what i wrote. Satan hates man he is at war with man i do know what enmity means in fact i double checked myself just to be sure. Your logic here is faulty at best, scripture is God breathed as stated by Paul do not assume that Moses added his own view of women to the Bible. Jesus is as much Adam’s son as he is Eve’s so God saying that Eve’s offspring would defeat Satan is completely supported. While yes you are right that Adam and Eve both sinned and were not “Christlike” however Satan still hates them and is still in strife with them and all of mankind(Eve’s offspring) my last post said as much that we being made in the likeness of God are a sore sight to Lucifer and we remind him daily of God’s greatness and his impending doom. Also what is so “Christlike” of Mary? “Well shes Gods mother therefore perfect,” but this has NO scriptural backing the pope didn’t claim this heresy until 1854. there is no scriptural backing and the pope DOES NOT have the power to introduce new doctrine based on what he feels God left out of the scriptures

 

[Scriptorian]

I must say that I checked Matt.1:25 and they seem to be right. I’m a practising Catholic but at the moment am not quite sure what I should believe.<<

Mary had other children. Why would the scriptures say that Jesus had brothers if Mary did not have any more children?

3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him. (Mark 6:3)

31 ¶ There came then his brethren and his mother, and, standing without, sent unto him, calling him.
32 And the multitude sat about him, and they said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren without seek for thee. (Mark 3:31-32)

Also, why does it diminish Mary in the least if she had other children? Can she not still be a chosen vessel?

 

[Mary_Gail_36]

catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

The entire article is good. Please read this part:

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was officially defined by Pope Pius IX in 1854. When Fundamentalists claim that the doctrine was “invented” at this time, they misunderstand both the history of dogmas and what prompts the Church to issue, from time to time, definitive pronouncements regarding faith or morals. They are under the impression that no doctrine is believed until the pope or an ecumenical council issues a formal statement about it.

Actually, doctrines are defined formally only when there is a controversy that needs to be cleared up or when the magisterium (the Church in its office as teacher; cf. Matt. 28:18–20; 1 Tim. 3:15, 4:11) thinks the faithful can be helped by particular emphasis being drawn to some already-existing belief. The definition of the Immaculate Conception was prompted by the latter motive; it did not come about because there were widespread doubts about the doctrine. In fact, the Vatican was deluged with requests from people desiring the doctrine to be officially proclaimed. Pope Pius IX, who was highly devoted to the Blessed Virgin, hoped the definition would inspire others in their devotion to her.

Also the article comes with the following:

NIHIL OBSTAT: I have concluded that the materials
presented in this work are free of doctrinal or moral errors.
Bernadeane Carr, STL, Censor Librorum, August 10, 2004

IMPRIMATUR: In accord with 1983 CIC 827
permission to publish this work is hereby granted.
+Robert H. Brom, Bishop of San Diego, August 10, 2004

 

[Gamera]

Catholics agree that Mary needed a savior. That’s exactly what the Immaculate Conception was: Jesus saving Mary at the moment of her conception. Anyone who claims that Catholics believe Mary “didn’t need a savior” has no clue what Catholics believe.

 

[TexCatholic4JMJ]

Mary had other children. Why would the scriptures say that Jesus had brothers if Mary did not have any more children?..

My friend belongs to a non-denominational church, she refers to other fellow female congregants as “Sister -----” and to male congregants as “Brother —” It doesn’t mean
that her mother bore these brothers and sisters, does it?
The Catholic Church has two secenarios, either of which can be believed.
One: Joseph was a widower with children, thus Mary could have had stepchildren.
Two: Cousins might have been called “brothers”, so Mary’s nephews could have
been called “brothers” but really were her nephews.

 

[guanophore]

Mary had other children.

No, she did not. This is the teaching we have from the Apostles. Don’t you think the Apostles would have noticed?

Why would the scriptures say that Jesus had brothers if Mary did not have any more children?

Because Matthew was written in Aramaic, and there is no word for “cousin”. Also, all persons in a member’s family who are too close for marriage are considered brothers and sisters. The same is true in my area of the country, where there are Native clans. Any unmarriagable close kin is considered a brother or sister. This applies to cousins, half sibs, step sibs, adoptive etc. Children of Joseph from a previous marriage would have been considered brothers and sisters.

Besides, those so named are also said to belong to “another Mary”, the sister of Jesus’ mother. She could have been married to Mary’s brother, or could have been a sister of Joseph.

Mark 6:3
3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon, and are not his sisters here with us?

They were obviously living in Nazareth.

Mark 15:40-41

40 There were also women looking on from afar, among whom were Mary Mag’dalene, and Mary the mother of James the younger and of Joses, and Salo’me, 41 who, when he was in Galilee, followed him, and ministered to him; and also many other women who came up with him to Jerusalem.

Jesus’ mother was at the foot of the cross with John. Her “sister” was standing afar off with Mare of Magdalena.

John 19:25-26
25 So the soldiers did this. But standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Mag’dalene.

The mother of these “brothers and sisters” of Jesus is the wife of Clopas.

Also, why does it diminish Mary in the least if she had other children? Can she not still be a chosen vessel?

It is diminishing for several reasons. It would mean that she set aside her vow of chastity to God, which would indicate that she was not keeping her promises to God. It also diminishes the Truth, because Jesus entrusted the gospel to the Church, and gave the Apostles His promise that He would preserve them in the Truth. If they had taught that she had other children, instead of being a perpetual virgin, the gospel message would have been polluted from the beginning. Another reason it is diminishing is because Mary was a consecrated vessel, and vessels dedicated to Holy use were not to be then removed and used for ordinary purposes. This is sacriligious.

 

[MelanieAnne]

Mary had other children. Why would the scriptures say that Jesus had brothers if Mary did not have any more children?

If you really believe the title brother and sister is only ever used in a literal context, you need to stop referring to those you meet at church as “brother” and “sister”. Why do you call them that if they are not actually closely related to you?

The fact of the matter is that in tribal societies cousins = siblings, aunts and uncles = parents. Aunts and Uncles are just as responsible for raising their nieces and nephews as they are for their own children. Some cultures in this world continue this practice to this day. I myself have had personal experience with this belief from a brother in law. If that is not something we typically do today in our country, that doesn’t change the situation in the first century. Sometimes we have to look at situation using 1st Century eyes, not 21st Century eyes. If you don’t have the knowledge to view matters using 1st Century eyes, it’s time to get that information!

Also, why does it diminish Mary in the least if she had other children? Can she not still be a chosen vessel?

Mary was chosen to be the Mother of God. As such, she was created, from the outset, “full of grace” by God as a Holy Vessel for the Incarnation. She was protected from sin so that in the Incarnation, God could inhabit a holy place. Would subsequent children diminish that? That’s not for me to argue, but it does diminish the situation to say she had other children if it is NOT TRUE.

There is no evidence that Jesus had actual BROTHERS and/or SISTERS. There is evidence He had COUSINS. Looked through the prism of the culture of the time and place, these relationships would be viewed as the same. What is the point of arguing about it? Is it going to change your faith?

Instead of arguing about things 2000 years old, I submit that it would be a more productive use of our time and resources for all of us to take better of care of our nephews and nieces!

 

[Richard_Kastner]

As part of the Catholic group on campus at college here, we often have a get together on Wednesday nights to discuss things that are easily misunderstood about the Church. In reference to this question we had one speaker come in and the way that he described it is that Sin is a great big hole int he ground that we make a choice to fall into. The way Mary received the Grace of God was that before she could even think about falling into it she was saved by the prospect of being the Mother of God. God saved her before he saved all of us and it was done before her birth.

In other words God circumvented Mary’s free will. 23For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;