So if you are citing Augustine’s Neoplatonism as being the “true” belief you have to explain why Augustine’s Neoplatonic Eucharistic theology is the original.
I don’t know that I ever said Augustine’s view of the Eucharist was the original view…I will say that the somatic real presence surely wasn’t the original view. What I had said earlier is:
there is a growing consensus among those who have studied Augustine, that this “Doctor of the Church” didn’t believe in a real somatic presence. Such a possibility is, of course, unacceptable to the conservative Catholic b/c it is too improbable to declare that the (RSP) existed from the outset, but that a Doctor of the Church didn’t believe it…but, as I said, that building scholarly consensus is your problem and not mine.
But Kilmartin admits that the earlier Greek tradition was in fact the biblical tradition of the corporeal Real Presence.
well, in my book Kilmartin keeps attributing the somatic real presence to the 4th century Antiochene School (see pages 6, 21) What Kilmartin describes is a theology in transition. A hodge-podge…it doesn’t appear to be a theology that orignated with Christ and was passed on, unaltered, down through the centuries.
Here is what you quoted from Kilmartin:
The theological meaning of the anamnesis, as it was explained by the Greek Fathers (and which was, in fact, more in line with biblical thinking), is not understood by these Western theologians ** [such as Augustine]**. This accounts in part for the tendency, in the effort to fill the void, to reduce the notion of anamnesis to allegory
[as Augustine arguably did]. … in the Greek perspective,
[the Eucharist] was grounded on the real participation of the eucharistic elements in the reality of the crucified and risen Lord who has his natural mode of existence at the right hand of the Father…"
I have made bold your additions to the text. By “Greek Fathers”, Kilmartin likely had the 4th century Antiochene School in mind (see p 18) By “Western theologians” Kilmartin had Radbertus and Ratramnus (both 9th century) in mind. Where you inserted “the Eucharist” Kilmartin actually had the “relation between prototype and the image” (as it related to the Eucharist) in mind.
Whether on CAF or in college or even grade school, you will learn very quickly that in the age of Google, you do not win an argument by just citing some book. Your audience can instantly access the book, see what the author actually said, and determine readily that you have misrepresented what was actually said.
nice bit of chest-thumping, but where did you show that I misrepresented what Kilmartin said.
Immaculate Conception: Genesis 3:15
Perpetual Virginity: Ezekiel 44:2 1 Corinthians 15:25
Thanks for demonstrating that these beliefs about Mary aren’t actually put forward in scripture, but that one must force a sketchy interpretation on to certain passages to try and remedy the silence. With such license any belief could be found (existing between the lines) in scripture.
Now we look at the ECFs: Here are Justin Martyr and Tertullian saying the exact opposite of what you claim.
well here is the quote from Tertullian:
And again, lest I depart from my argumentation on the name of Adam: Why is Christ called Adam by the apostle [Paul], if as man he was not of that earthly origin? But even reason defends this conclusion, that God recovered his image and likeness by a procedure similar to that in which he had been robbed of it by the devil. It was while Eve was still a virgin that the word of the devil crept in to erect an edifice of death. Likewise through a virgin the Word of God was introduced to set up a structure of life. Thus what had been laid waste in ruin by this sex was by the same sex reestablished in salvation. Eve had believed the serpent; Mary believed Gabriel. That which the one destroyed by believing, the other, by believing, set straight" (The Flesh of Christ 17:4 [A.D. 210].
and here is the quote from Martyr:
[Jesus] became man by the Virgin so that the course which was taken by disobedience in the beginning through the agency of the serpent might be also the very course by which it would be put down. Eve, a virgin and undefiled, conceived the word of the serpent and bore disobedience and death. But the Virgin Mary received faith and joy when the angel Gabriel announced to her the glad tidings that the Spirit of the Lord would come upon her and the power of the Most High would overshadow her, for which reason the Holy One being born of her is the Son of God. And she replied ‘Be it done unto me according to your word’ [Luke 1:38]" (Dialogue with Trypho the Jew 100 [A.D. 155]).
specifying that she was an obedient virgin hardly speaks to any of those Marian doctrines…and doesn’t at all contradict anything I claimed.