Please help explain a verse

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OK so my baptist pastor say that us Catholics should not call are priest father cause it says in Matthew 23:9 'Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. how can i explain to him that calling a priest father is not wrong
 
OK so my baptist pastor say that us Catholics should not call are priest father cause it says in Matthew 23:9 'Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. how can i explain to him that calling a priest father is not wrong
Which has more force to you: calling a man “father” or gathering wealth? Remember the “eye of the needle?”
 
OK so my baptist pastor say that us Catholics should not call are priest father cause it says in Matthew 23:9 'Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. how can i explain to him that calling a priest father is not wrong
Simplest argument “What do you call the man, who was married to your mother, and provides one half of your genes?”
 
Ask him, then, what does he call someone who teaches Sunday school? Reference the passage right before Matt. 23:9, 23:8, which says call no man “Rabbi” (which means “Teacher”).

Jesus wasn’t playing semantics in the Bible. He meant that we weren’t to have the spirit of superiority and pride that is shown by their acceptance through these titles. Also, reference Luke 14:11, “For everyone who exalts himself will be humbled, but the one who humbles himself will be exalted.”

May I add that using the Bible in that manner leads to all sorts of errors in interpretation.

Jesus never wrote a book. He taught orally. They called Him Rabbi (teacher). Nor did He command the Apostles to write anything. But, He did command the Apostles to go forth and teach everything that He had taught them. (Matt. 28:20) But not everything He taught them is in the Bible. (See John 21:25) So, what Jesus taught orally was taught by the Apostles to their successors, the bishops, who did likewise throughout the centuries till today. SOME of what was taught orally was written down. We call that the New Testament. The Magisterium of the Catholic Church (the Pope + the bishops in union with him) decided, in the fourth century, what books belonged in the New Testament, and which did not. They went through over 300 documents and letters, praying to the Holy Spirit to guide them, and ended up with the 27 we have today. Part of the criteria in deciding which books belonged was whether they agreed with what had always been taught orally.

What your pastor is doing is called “proof texting.” That’s taking snippets of Scripture out of context and bending them to his own desired translation. That’s why there are literally thousands of Protestant denominations, all having contradictory doctrines. It’s a mess.

The Bible should be read in context of the whole of Scripture, in light of Sacred Tradition (oral teaching), and Magisterial teaching (what the Popes and bishops have always taught). It is impossible for the Bible, Sacred Tradition, and Magisterial teaching to ever be at odds, one with another. They are all in harmony, i.e., in agreement.
 
OK so my baptist pastor say that us Catholics should not call are priest father cause it says in Matthew 23:9 'Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. how can i explain to him that calling a priest father is not wrong
Just ask him about his children or parents.

Without realizing it, he will likely use the word Father because he is in that relationship to his Father and he is a Father to his children.
 
OK so my baptist pastor say that us Catholics should not call are priest father cause it says in Matthew 23:9 'Call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. how can i explain to him that calling a priest father is not wrong
St Paul says: for I am your father…
 
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